Lernkartei Internal Final (Seite 1 von 5)

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Sprache	Deutsch
Kategorie	Medizin
Stufe	Universität
Erstellt / Aktualisiert	04.12.2016 / 30.05.2022
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1. Diabetic complications in a patient with diabetes include:

Hashimoto’s disease
Retinopathy
MI
celiac disease
Neuropathy
Charcot’s foot
Chopart’s foot

A. 2,3,5,6,7

B. 2,3,5,6

C. 1,2,4,5,7

D. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7

E. none of the above

2. Small lung cancer carcinoma

a. typically manifests with disseminated lesions in lungs with 2 mm in diameter

b. typically manifests with disseminated lesions in lungs with the diameter up to 10mm

c. often occurs in the form of a tumor in the area of the hilum of lung

d. often occurs in the form of minor shadings that during the 1st year of the disease are only visible in the high resolution CT

e. often occurs in the form of minot satellite nodules around a tumour of another histological type

3. Treatment of a patient with hemoptysis in the course of a lung cancer includes:

a. placing the patient in a position in which bleeding area is located downwards (for examples on the left or right side)

b. placing the patient in a position in which bleeding area is located upwards (for examples on the left or right side)

c. short-term application on non-invasive mechanical ventilation

d. administrating oxygen in concentration exceeding 70%

e. application of ventilation with helium and oxygen mixture

4. Pneumonia caused by anaerobes:

a. is a typical complication of chemotherapy and radiotherapy in patients with non-small-cell lung carcinoma

b. often occurs in patients subjected to long term corticosteroid therapy

c. usually develops in patients with persistent cavities and post-tuberculous fibrosis

d. is a frequent hospital-acquired infection

e. usually occurs in patients with swallowing disorder or after an episode of loss of consciousness

5. Thrombocythemia may occur in all of the listed diseases except for:

a. acute myeloid leukaemia

b. iron deficiency anaemia

c. chronic myeloid leukaemia

d. after splenectomy

e. Hodgkins lymphoma

6. Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) - indicate the false sentence

a. it may be secondary to myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or myeloproliferative syndrome (MPS) that occurred earlier

b. the number of leukocytes can be lowered, elevated or normal

c. the course of the diseases is sometimes complicated by DIC and leukostasis syndrome

d. there is no need to conduct molecular and cryogenic tests while diagnosis the disease

e. in patients who are <60 years old intensive combination chemotherapy scheme is applied in order to achieve remission of the disease

7. An indication for urgent commencement of dialysis is:

a. GFR 25 ml/min, potassium 4.5 mmol/l, despite maintained two-litre daily diuresis

b. GFR 10 ml/min, potassium 6.5 mmol/l, empty bladder in ultrasound, dyspnoea

c. GFR 20 ml/min, potassium 5 mmol/l, two-litre diuresis after administration of loop diuretic

d. GFR 20 ml/min, potassium 4.5 mmol/l, significant hydropnephrosis of both kidneys

e. ph 7.36, BE-3, potassium 5.6 mmol/l, two-litre spontaneous diuresis

8. If symptoms of dysfunction of the right ventricle or myocardial damage markers without shock and hypotonia are found in a patient we may diagnose:

a. high risk pulmonary embolism

b. low risk pulmonary embolism

c. intermediate-high-risk pulmonary embolism

d. the symptoms listed above do not occur in pulmonary embolism

e. risk of hypertensive crisis in the course of pulmonary embolism

9. Paroxysmal flushing of facial and thoracic skin, watery diarrhea, increased sweating, tachycardia are characteristic for tumors secreting:

"carcionoid syndrome"

a. catecholamines

b. growth hormone

c. cortisol

d. calcitonin

e. serotonin

10. Typical Hodgkin’s lymphoma symptoms do not include:

a. symptoms from B group

b. itching and sometimes pain of lymph nodes after alcohol consumption

c. lymphadenopathy of cervical and mediastinal lymph nodes

d. neurological deficiencies

e. granulomatous changes beyond the lymphatic system

11. Which antibodies are the most characteristic ones for rheumatoid arthritis

a. anti-cardiolipin

b. anti-centromere

c. anti-CCP

d. rheumatoid factor

e. ANCA

12. Cheyne-Stokes respiration:

Common causes include: advanced heart failure, damage to respiratory centers (e.g., stroke, traumatic brain injuries, metabolic encephalopathies), and central sleep apnea

a. is caused by slowed blood flow (hypokinetic circulation) and as a result, slowed stimulation of the respiratory centre depending on partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, and it occurs, among others, in heart failure

b. is a symptom on increased intracranial pressure

c. is a mechanism that compensates metabolic acidosis (elimination of carbon dioxide through lungs) and consists in significant hyperventilation

d. it typically occurs in the course of generalized, complex epileptic seizure

e. is a consequence of the Morgangi-Adams-Stokes syndrome (MAS)

13. Indicate the characteristic feature of rheumatic polymyalgia

a. high parameters on inflammatory state

b. presence of anti-citrulline antibodies

c. lack of improvement after application of glucocorticosteroids

d. being aﬀected by the disease cancers people below the age of 45

e. aggravation of ailments in the evening hours

14. Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome II (APS II) is characterised by:

inheritance that is related to the AIRE gene
peak incidence between the 20th and the 40th year of age
comorbidity of Addison disease with other autoimmune endocrinopathies
occurrence of hypoparathyroidism in most patients
rare concomitance with autoimmune diseases of the thyroid

The correct answer is:

A. 1,3, 4

B. 2,3

C. 1,5

D. 1,2,4

E. 1,3

15. Crohn’s diseases is not-specific IBD

a. which may concur each section of the digestive tract

b. which is most often manifested by abdominal pain and unintentional weight loss

c. may lead to development of narrowing of digestive tract and fistulas

d. in the treatment of which immunosuppressive and biological drugs are applied

e. all of the answers are correct

16. Which scale aids decision-making concerning incorporation of anticoagulation therapy in patients with atrial fibrillation

a. TIMI

b. EUROSCORE II

c. CHA2DS2-VASc

d. PESI

e. GRACE

17. Oesophageal varices, bleedings from the upper section of the digestive tract, hypoalbuminaemia, low level of prothrombin/elevated INR indicate:

a. peptic ulcer disease of the stomach

b. chronic pancreatitis

c. oesophageal reflux disease

d. cirrhosis of the liver

e. risk of hypertensive crisis

18. In order to control ventricular rate in a patient with atrial fibrillation and low ejection fraction the physician may apply:

> rate control done w/ pharmacotherapy

> rhythm control done w/ either pharmacotherapy or DC cardioversion

a. metoprolol

b. verapamil

c. digoxin

d. all of the above

e. only A and C

19. Which is not a method of treatment applied in stage 5 chronic kidney disease?

a. hemodialysis

b. peritoneal dialysis

c. kidney transplant from deceased donor

d. plasmapheresis

e. hemodiafiltration

20. While treating a patient with large amount of fluid in pleural cavity, the physical should first and foremost:

a. perform pleurodesis

b. administer large dose of diuretics, and subsequently conduct pleural puncture

c. administer diuretics and cardiac drugs, and subsequently perform pleural cavity drainage

d. perform pleural puncture combined wit pleural biopsy performed with the use of Abram’s or Cope’s needle

e. perform therapeutic pleural puncture

21. The so- called B-group symptoms do not include:

a. weight loss by 10% within the last 6 months

b. fever > 38 degrees Celsius

c. feeling of fullness in the abdomen

d. night sweats

e. A and B

22. Which result of laboratory test is not characteristic of multiple myeloma

a. ESR acceleration

b. anaemia

c. leukocytosis

d. hypercalcemia

e. hypergammaglobulinemia

23. What can be the cause of menstrual disorders?

Congenital 21-hydroxylase deficiency
inadequate L-thyroxine replacement in the course of hypothyroidism treatment
focal lesion of thyroid with euthyreosis
hormonally inactive adrenal tumour
ACTH-secreting pituitary microadenoma
Rathke cleft cysts of 1mm in diameter

The correct answers are:

A. 2,3,5

B. 1,2,5

C. 1,4,6

D. 2,4,6

E. 3,4,5

24. A typical feature of LADA is:

a. a relative stable course

b. a relative turbulent course

c. the possibility to treat it with sulphonylurea derivatives

d. frequent comorbidity with hyperparathyroidism

e. significant insulin resistance

25. A contraindication to perform colonoscopy is:

a. Suspicion of GI bleeding

b. age above 80

c. sigmoid diverticulitis

d. iron deficiency-induced anaemia

e. pain in the left iliac fossa

26. What should be done in a patient with type 2 diabetes with GFR of 50ml/min, insuﬃcient control of glycemia, treated with metfomin?

a. metformin should be withdrawn

b. the dose of metformin should be increased

c. inclusion of an additional oral antihyperglycemic drug should be considered

d. treatment with insulin should be introduced

e. isotope renography should be performed

27. Which of the following medication is a direct, oral thrombin inhibitor?

a. bivalirudin (IV hirudyna, biwalirudyna, argatroban, dabigatran, ximelagatran)

b. warfarin

c. rivaroxaban

d. enoxaparin

e. none of the above

28. The risk factors of oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma are:

> The most important risk factors for esophageal adenocarcinoma are GERD and associated Barrett esophagus.

a. smoking

b. gastroesophageal reflux

c. alcohol consumption

d. A and C

e. A, B and C

29. Primary sclerosing cholangitis often occurs in patents with:

a. Crohn’s disease

b. Ulcerative colitis

c. Bile duct cancer

d. A and B

e. A,B and C

30. Proteinuria, decreased values of eGFR, accelerated ESR often with normal values of CRP, bone pain, presence of kappa chains or lambda chains in immunofixation of serum and/or urine proteins indicate:

a. glomerulonephritis

b. nephritic syndrome

c. multiple myeloma

d. Hemolysis

e. Lyme disease

31. Immunological symptoms of infective endocarditis are:

a. glomerulonephritis

b. Osler’s nodes

c. Roth’s spots

d. presence of rheumatoid factor

e. all of the above

32. Changes of ST-T in the course of the infarction of the inferior wall of the heart include the following leads:

a. II, III, aVR

b. II, II, aVL

c. II, III, aVF

d. I, aVL, V5-V6

V1-V5

33. A 68 years old patient diagnosed with abdominal aortic aneurysm with diameter equal to 45mm, in whom intense abdominal pain and hypotension have occurs, requires primarily:

a. administration of analgesics and an antibiotic

b. periodical ultrasound control of the aneurysm diameter and referral for surgical treatment when the diameter exceeds 55mm

c. reduction of medications that may cause hypotension

d. urgent consideration of surgical treatment

e. administration of low molecular weight heparin

34. Allergic inflammation of pulmonary alveoli:

a. is a typical complication of corticosteroid therapy in patients with treatment-resistant asthma

b. is sometimes a pulmonary manifestation of some autoimmune disease

c. typically occurs in patients with undiagnosed chronic obstructive airway disease with coexisting bronchial asthma

d. develops, among others, after exposure to chemical antigens or some proteins of animal origin

e. develops after acute anaphylactic reaction

35. The number of P waves and the number of QRS complexes are the same in the case of:

a. first degree atrioventricular block

b. second degree atrioventricular block (Wenckebach type)

c. second degree atrioventricular block (Mobitz II type)

d. third degree atrioventricular block

e. all of the above

36. Purulent fluid in pleural cavity:

a. constitute an indication for surgical removal of the lung and pleura

b. it should be removed with the use of repeated pleural puncture technique

c. requires using high doses of antibiotics IV and intrapleurally

d. constitutes an indication for pleural drainage

e. requires pleural puncture and intrapleural administration of an antibiotic that does not irritate the pleura

37. In a patient with glycemic equal to 720 mg/dl, the level of sodium measured in blood serum is 145 mEq/l/ Real, corrected natremia is equal to:

a. 145 mEq/l

b. 152 mEq/l

c. 137 mEq/l

d. 155 mEq/l

e. 127 mEq/l

38. Indicate the false sentence concerning premature ovarian failure syndrome?

a. it is ovarian failure before the age of 40

b. it is diagnosed when FSH concentration of > 40 IU/l in serum in women who are <40 years of age is measured twice at ≥ 1 month interval

c. its diagnosis is conditioned by low concentration of AMH

d. etiology of the syndrome may be multifactorial (genetic, chromosomal, iatrogenic, enzymatic)

e. treatment consists in hormone replacement therapy

39. Primary acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis is a disease of immune complexes that usually begins 1 to 3 weeks after what type of prior infection?

a. viral

b. with group A of β haemolytic streptococci

c. mycotic

d. all of the above (A,B,C)

e. none of the above

40. What is characteristic for spontaneous pulmonary fibrosis?

a. occurrence of bronchial obstruction features only in spirometry, not in physical exam

b. absence of physical and spirometric bronchial obstruction features and intensification of vesicular murmur in lower parts of the lungs

c. occurrence of nail clubbing, restrictive type of pulmonary ventilation function reduction and crackles in the lower parts of the lugs

d. occurrence of rhonchi and wheezing in the upper parts of the lugs and crackles in the lower parts of the lungs

e. coexistence of restrictive type of pulmonary ventilation function reduction with physical features of bronchial obstruction

Internal Final

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