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Flashcards	200
Language	Deutsch
Category	Medical
Level	University
Created / Updated	04.12.2016 / 30.05.2022
Weblink	https://card2brain.ch/box/mendel_genetics_
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Question 86/100

The primary test in the diagnosis of lymphedema is:

A. lymphoscintigraphy

B. computed tomography

C. magnetic resonance imaging

D.ultrasonography

E. Lymphography

A. lymphoscintigraphy

B. computed tomography

C. magnetic resonance imaging

D.ultrasonography

E. Lymphography

Question 87/100

The cause of chronic kidney disease with impaired renal function is not:

A. thin basement membrane nephropathy

B. polycystic kidney degeneration

C. diabetic nephropathy

D.plasmocytic myeloma

E. hypertensive nephropathy

A. thin basement membrane nephropathy

B. polycystic kidney degeneration

C. diabetic nephropathy

D.plasmocytic myeloma

E. hypertensive nephropathy

Question 88/100

The original and simplified Pulmonary Embolism Severity Index can determine:

A.Only the in-hospital risk of death associated with a pulmonary embolism episode based on selected clinical parameters

B.Severity of pulmonary embolism symptoms only, based on selected clinical parameters without risk of death

C.Risk of death based on the probability of pulmonary embolism

D.Overall risk of death but only in selected cases, e.g., shock associated with a pulmonary embolism episode

E.The 30-day risk of death associated with an episode of pulmonary embolism

A.Only the in-hospital risk of death associated with a pulmonary embolism episode based on selected clinical parameters

B.Severity of pulmonary embolism symptoms only, based on selected clinical parameters without risk of death

C.Risk of death based on the probability of pulmonary embolism

D.Overall risk of death but only in selected cases, e.g., shock associated with a pulmonary embolism episode

E.The 30-day risk of death associated with an episode of pulmonary embolism

Question 89/100

Which of the following diagnostic tests is useful in the diagnosis of ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke?

A.Magnetic resonance imaging of the abdominal cavity

B.Transthoracic echocardiogram

C.Doppler studies of the carotid arteries

D.Computed tomography of the head

E.Transcranial doppler

A.Magnetic resonance imaging of the abdominal cavity

B.Transthoracic echocardiogram

C.Doppler studies of the carotid arteries

D.Computed tomography of the head

E.Transcranial doppler

Question 90/100

Which medications are considered for the treatment of hypertension during pregnancy?

1. ramipril

2. telmisartan

3. methyldopa

4. labetalol

5. methylphenidate

a. 1 i 2

b. 1 i 3

c. 5

d. None of the above

e. 3 i 4

a. 1 i 2

b. 1 i 3

c. 5

d. None of the above

e. 3 i 4

Question 91/100

Complications of upper chest compression syndrome include the following except:

A.Aneurysm of the subclavian artery

B.Peripheral embolism of the arteries of the upper extremity

C.Injury to the brachial plexus

D. Subclavian vein thrombosis

E.Lymphedema of the upper extremity

A.Aneurysm of the subclavian artery

B.Peripheral embolism of the arteries of the upper extremity

C.Injury to the brachial plexus

D. Subclavian vein thrombosis

E.Lymphedema of the upper extremity

Question 92/100

In a patient with hyperthyroidism, thyroid storm should be suspected when:

A. no answer is correct

B. there is crackles at the base of the lungs, atrial fibrillation, constipation, and slowing

C. fever, diarrhea, delirium, agitation, tachycardia, psychosis

D. fever, diarrhea, delirium

E. agitation, tachycardia, psychosis is present

A. no answer is correct

B. there is crackles at the base of the lungs, atrial fibrillation, constipation, and slowing

C. fever, diarrhea, delirium, agitation, tachycardia, psychosis

D. fever, diarrhea, delirium

E. agitation, tachycardia, psychosis is present

Question 93/100

The correct duration of the PQ interval and QRS complex should not exceed:

A.All of the above answers are incorrect

B.PQ 120 ms, QRS 120 ms

C.PQ 200 ms, QRS 200 ms

D.PQ 120 ms, QRS 200 ms

E.PQ 200 ms, QRS 120 ms

A.All of the above answers are incorrect

B.PQ 120 ms, QRS 120 ms

C.PQ 200 ms, QRS 200 ms

D.PQ 120 ms, QRS 200 ms

E.PQ 200 ms, QRS 120 ms

Question 94/100

In a patient with acute chest pain, the time from initial medical contact with the patient to ECG recording and interpretation should be

A.< 10 minutes

B.< 25 minutes

C.< 5 minutes

D.< 30 minutes

E.< 15 minutes

A.< 10 minutes

B.< 25 minutes

C.< 5 minutes

D.< 30 minutes

E.< 15 minutes

Question 95/100

The classic symptoms of microscopic colitis include:

A. fluctuating bowel movements and fever

B. significant weight loss

C. diarrhea with an admixture of fresh blood

D. perirectal fistulas

E. watery diarrhea and spasmodic abdominal pain

A. fluctuating bowel movements and fever

B. significant weight loss

C. diarrhea with an admixture of fresh blood

D. perirectal fistulas

E. watery diarrhea and spasmodic abdominal pain

Question 96/100

Acute coronary syndromes include:

A.All of those listed

B.Myocardial infarction without ST-segment elevation

C.Unstable angina

D.ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction

E.ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction and non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction only

A.All of those listed

B.Myocardial infarction without ST-segment elevation

C.Unstable angina

D.ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction

E.ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction and non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction only

Question 97/100

The following should be considered in the etiopathogenesis of ulcerative colitis?

A. All of the above factors

B. Abnormalities of the intestinal microbiota

C. Immunological factors

D. Environmental factors associated with urbanization

E. Genetic conditions

A. All of the above factors

B. Abnormalities of the intestinal microbiota

C. Immunological factors

D. Environmental factors associated with urbanization

E. Genetic conditions

Question 98/100

The blood gas (ABG) test shown below indicates:

A. a normal ABG result

B. respiratory acidosis

C. metabolic alkalosis

D. metabolic acidosis

E. respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation

A. a normal ABG result

B. respiratory acidosis

C. metabolic alkalosis

D. metabolic acidosis

E. respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation

Question 99/100

In which of the following situations should an urgent invasive strategy (coronary angiography and possibly coronary angioplasty within <2 hours of admission) be used in the management of patients with acute coronary syndrome without ST-segment elevation:

A. refractory chest pain to conservative treatment

B. life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias or cardiac arrest

C.mechanical complications of ischemia (acute mitral regurgitation, ventricular septal defect)

D. hemodynamic instability or cardiogenic shock

E. all of the above

A. refractory chest pain to conservative treatment

B. life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias or cardiac arrest

C.mechanical complications of ischemia (acute mitral regurgitation, ventricular septal defect)

D. hemodynamic instability or cardiogenic shock

E. all of the above

Question 100/100

Which therapeutic strategy is contraindicated in the treatment of aortic dissection:

A. open angiosurgical procedures

B. morphine

C. endovascular procedures

D. antihypertensive drugs

E.Low molecular weight heparin

A. open angiosurgical procedures

B. morphine

C. endovascular procedures

D. antihypertensive drugs

E.Low molecular weight heparin

1. Diabetic complications in a patient with diabetes include:

Hashimoto’s disease
Retinopathy
MI
celiac disease
Neuropathy
Charcot’s foot
Chopart’s foot

A. 2,3,5,6,7

B. 2,3,5,6

C. 1,2,4,5,7

D. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7

E. none of the above

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

A. 2,3,5,6,7

B. 2,3,5,6

C. 1,2,4,5,7

D. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7

E. none of the above

2. Small lung cancer carcinoma

a. typically manifests with disseminated lesions in lungs with 2 mm in diameter

b. typically manifests with disseminated lesions in lungs with the diameter up to 10mm

c. often occurs in the form of a tumor in the area of the hilum of lung

d. often occurs in the form of minor shadings that during the 1st year of the disease are only visible in the high resolution CT

e. often occurs in the form of minot satellite nodules around a tumour of another histological type

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

a. typically manifests with disseminated lesions in lungs with 2 mm in diameter

b. typically manifests with disseminated lesions in lungs with the diameter up to 10mm

c. often occurs in the form of a tumor in the area of the hilum of lung

d. often occurs in the form of minor shadings that during the 1st year of the disease are only visible in the high resolution CT

e. often occurs in the form of minot satellite nodules around a tumour of another histological type

3. Treatment of a patient with hemoptysis in the course of a lung cancer includes:

a. placing the patient in a position in which bleeding area is located downwards (for examples on the left or right side)

b. placing the patient in a position in which bleeding area is located upwards (for examples on the left or right side)

c. short-term application on non-invasive mechanical ventilation

d. administrating oxygen in concentration exceeding 70%

e. application of ventilation with helium and oxygen mixture

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

a. placing the patient in a position in which bleeding area is located downwards (for examples on the left or right side)

b. placing the patient in a position in which bleeding area is located upwards (for examples on the left or right side)

c. short-term application on non-invasive mechanical ventilation

d. administrating oxygen in concentration exceeding 70%

e. application of ventilation with helium and oxygen mixture

4. Pneumonia caused by anaerobes:

a. is a typical complication of chemotherapy and radiotherapy in patients with non-small-cell lung carcinoma

b. often occurs in patients subjected to long term corticosteroid therapy

c. usually develops in patients with persistent cavities and post-tuberculous fibrosis

d. is a frequent hospital-acquired infection

e. usually occurs in patients with swallowing disorder or after an episode of loss of consciousness

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

a. is a typical complication of chemotherapy and radiotherapy in patients with non-small-cell lung carcinoma

b. often occurs in patients subjected to long term corticosteroid therapy

c. usually develops in patients with persistent cavities and post-tuberculous fibrosis

d. is a frequent hospital-acquired infection

e. usually occurs in patients with swallowing disorder or after an episode of loss of consciousness

5. Thrombocythemia may occur in all of the listed diseases except for:

a. acute myeloid leukaemia

b. iron deficiency anaemia

c. chronic myeloid leukaemia

d. after splenectomy

e. Hodgkins lymphoma

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

a. acute myeloid leukaemia

b. iron deficiency anaemia

c. chronic myeloid leukaemia

d. after splenectomy

e. Hodgkins lymphoma

6. Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) - indicate the false sentence

a. it may be secondary to myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or myeloproliferative syndrome (MPS) that occurred earlier

b. the number of leukocytes can be lowered, elevated or normal

c. the course of the diseases is sometimes complicated by DIC and leukostasis syndrome

d. there is no need to conduct molecular and cryogenic tests while diagnosis the disease

e. in patients who are <60 years old intensive combination chemotherapy scheme is applied in order to achieve remission of the disease

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

a. it may be secondary to myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or myeloproliferative syndrome (MPS) that occurred earlier

b. the number of leukocytes can be lowered, elevated or normal

c. the course of the diseases is sometimes complicated by DIC and leukostasis syndrome

d. there is no need to conduct molecular and cryogenic tests while diagnosis the disease

e. in patients who are <60 years old intensive combination chemotherapy scheme is applied in order to achieve remission of the disease

7. An indication for urgent commencement of dialysis is:

a. GFR 25 ml/min, potassium 4.5 mmol/l, despite maintained two-litre daily diuresis

b. GFR 10 ml/min, potassium 6.5 mmol/l, empty bladder in ultrasound, dyspnoea

c. GFR 20 ml/min, potassium 5 mmol/l, two-litre diuresis after administration of loop diuretic

d. GFR 20 ml/min, potassium 4.5 mmol/l, significant hydropnephrosis of both kidneys

e. ph 7.36, BE-3, potassium 5.6 mmol/l, two-litre spontaneous diuresis

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

a. GFR 25 ml/min, potassium 4.5 mmol/l, despite maintained two-litre daily diuresis

b. GFR 10 ml/min, potassium 6.5 mmol/l, empty bladder in ultrasound, dyspnoea

c. GFR 20 ml/min, potassium 5 mmol/l, two-litre diuresis after administration of loop diuretic

d. GFR 20 ml/min, potassium 4.5 mmol/l, significant hydropnephrosis of both kidneys

e. ph 7.36, BE-3, potassium 5.6 mmol/l, two-litre spontaneous diuresis

8. If symptoms of dysfunction of the right ventricle or myocardial damage markers without shock and hypotonia are found in a patient we may diagnose:

a. high risk pulmonary embolism

b. low risk pulmonary embolism

c. intermediate-high-risk pulmonary embolism

d. the symptoms listed above do not occur in pulmonary embolism

e. risk of hypertensive crisis in the course of pulmonary embolism

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

a. high risk pulmonary embolism

b. low risk pulmonary embolism

c. intermediate-high-risk pulmonary embolism

d. the symptoms listed above do not occur in pulmonary embolism

e. risk of hypertensive crisis in the course of pulmonary embolism

9. Paroxysmal flushing of facial and thoracic skin, watery diarrhea, increased sweating, tachycardia are characteristic for tumors secreting:

"carcionoid syndrome"

a. catecholamines

b. growth hormone

c. cortisol

d. calcitonin

e. serotonin

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

a. catecholamines

b. growth hormone

c. cortisol

d. calcitonin

e. serotonin

10. Typical Hodgkin’s lymphoma symptoms do not include:

a. symptoms from B group

b. itching and sometimes pain of lymph nodes after alcohol consumption

c. lymphadenopathy of cervical and mediastinal lymph nodes

d. neurological deficiencies

e. granulomatous changes beyond the lymphatic system

Commandes clavier:

= tourner,

= avant/arrière,

= faire défiler

a. symptoms from B group

b. itching and sometimes pain of lymph nodes after alcohol consumption

c. lymphadenopathy of cervical and mediastinal lymph nodes

d. neurological deficiencies

e. granulomatous changes beyond the lymphatic system

11. Which antibodies are the most characteristic ones for rheumatoid arthritis

a. anti-cardiolipin

b. anti-centromere

c. anti-CCP

d. rheumatoid factor

e. ANCA

a. anti-cardiolipin

b. anti-centromere

c. anti-CCP

d. rheumatoid factor

e. ANCA

12. Cheyne-Stokes respiration:

Common causes include: advanced heart failure, damage to respiratory centers (e.g., stroke, traumatic brain injuries, metabolic encephalopathies), and central sleep apnea

a. is caused by slowed blood flow (hypokinetic circulation) and as a result, slowed stimulation of the respiratory centre depending on partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, and it occurs, among others, in heart failure

b. is a symptom on increased intracranial pressure

c. is a mechanism that compensates metabolic acidosis (elimination of carbon dioxide through lungs) and consists in significant hyperventilation

d. it typically occurs in the course of generalized, complex epileptic seizure

e. is a consequence of the Morgangi-Adams-Stokes syndrome (MAS)

b. is a symptom on increased intracranial pressure

c. is a mechanism that compensates metabolic acidosis (elimination of carbon dioxide through lungs) and consists in significant hyperventilation

d. it typically occurs in the course of generalized, complex epileptic seizure

e. is a consequence of the Morgangi-Adams-Stokes syndrome (MAS)

13. Indicate the characteristic feature of rheumatic polymyalgia

a. high parameters on inflammatory state

b. presence of anti-citrulline antibodies

c. lack of improvement after application of glucocorticosteroids

d. being aﬀected by the disease cancers people below the age of 45

e. aggravation of ailments in the evening hours

a. high parameters on inflammatory state

b. presence of anti-citrulline antibodies

c. lack of improvement after application of glucocorticosteroids

d. being aﬀected by the disease cancers people below the age of 45

e. aggravation of ailments in the evening hours

14. Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome II (APS II) is characterised by:

inheritance that is related to the AIRE gene
peak incidence between the 20th and the 40th year of age
comorbidity of Addison disease with other autoimmune endocrinopathies
occurrence of hypoparathyroidism in most patients
rare concomitance with autoimmune diseases of the thyroid

The correct answer is:

A. 1,3, 4

B. 2,3

C. 1,5

D. 1,2,4

E. 1,3

A. 1,3, 4

B. 2,3

C. 1,5

D. 1,2,4

E. 1,3

15. Crohn’s diseases is not-specific IBD

a. which may concur each section of the digestive tract

b. which is most often manifested by abdominal pain and unintentional weight loss

c. may lead to development of narrowing of digestive tract and fistulas

d. in the treatment of which immunosuppressive and biological drugs are applied

e. all of the answers are correct

a. which may concur each section of the digestive tract

b. which is most often manifested by abdominal pain and unintentional weight loss

c. may lead to development of narrowing of digestive tract and fistulas

d. in the treatment of which immunosuppressive and biological drugs are applied

e. all of the answers are correct

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