Clinical Pharmacology

Type F adverse drug reactions – attributed to lack of efficacy of drug. Which term is false:

What should I report on a Yellow Card /Pharmacovigilance)?

Risk factors increasing the probability of undesirable drug interaction

Therapies A, B, C and D have different cost and effectiveness. Indicate therapy which dominates:

Drugs may differ in extent of plasma protein binding (EPM). The dosage of which drug should be reduced the most in nephrotic syndrome?

Clorpropamide is bound to plasma proteins in 80%. In a patient with liver failure and associating hypoalbuminemia there is the reduction of protein binding by 10%. How much would the unbound fraction of the drug increase in this case?

Probenicid is a weak acid, while diazepam is a week base. In which disease state the absorption of diazepam would decrease?

The standard dose of sertraline is 50 mg. Creatinine clearance in the patient was assessed to be 20 ml/min. What is the required dose of sertraline in this patient, assuming that normal creatinine clearance is 100 ml/min.

The statement “inhibitors of P-gp may decrease the efflux of sirolismus from intestinal cells and increase sirolismus level” is:

ndividuals can be classified as extensive metabolizers, poor metabolizers or ultrarapid metabolizers. Both codeine and nortriptyline are metabolized by CYP2D6. Codeine is metabolized into an active agent (morphine), conversely, nortriptyline is the active therapeutic agent and is metabolized to an inactive form. Subjects who are poor metabolizers based upon CYP2D6 genotype:

Are patients with aphasia who received speech-language pathology services shortly after their stroke more or less likely to achieve functional communication abilities than stroke patients who received such treatments later? Indicate intervention (I).

TPMT is responsible for the metabolism of:

The following drugs undergo phase II metabolism by hepatic acetylation enzymes (N-acetyltransferase):

Monitoring serum drug concentartions of the following drugs is recognized as avaluable supplement to clinical pharmacology:

The following agents induce hepatic CYP450:

The following inhibit at least one of the hepatic CYP450 isoenzymes:

The following properties of a drug facilitates its entry into breast milk:

Which patient is most at risk to experience an adverse drug effect?

The patient is prescribed a medication that leads to extremely breathing. This response to the medication is most likely to be considered:

A breast feeding mother who takes a prescription drug is told the most appropriate time for her to take the medication to reduce the infant's exposure to the drug is:

During pregnancy (check the false answer):

n neonates relative to adults:

The following are type A adverse effects:

Individuals who are slow acetylators:

Phase I study:

The following adverse drug reaction should be reported to the MHRA using the yellow card:

Which of the following interactions elevated cyclosporin levels?

Which statement about the process of drug discovery is true?

In pharmacokinetics what does the acronym ADME stand for?

Which of the following is not a side effect of Captopril?

Each of the following diuretics is paired with a candidate side effect. Which of the following diuretics is correctly paired with an associated side effect?

Cardiac failure

In pregnancy (check the false answer):

The following drugs prolong the QT interval and causes torsades de pointes:

Which of the following is the correct definition of bioavalability?

The following drugs undergo phase II metabolism by hepatic acetylation enzymes ( acetyltransferases):

When you can not use the drug outside the indications registered?

Monitoring serum drug concentartions of the following drugs is recognized as a valuable supplement to clinical pharmacology:

A patient with severe infectious disease is being treated with an aminoglycoside antibiotic, where diuretic should be avoided, if possible, for this patient, because of the risk of a serious adverse effect shared by both drugs?

Unexpected adverse reaction is: