Set of flashcards Clinical Pharmacology (Page 1 of 5)

Flashcards	165
Language	English
Category	Medical
Level	University
Created / Updated	17.05.2020 / 14.06.2020
Weblink	https://card2brain.ch/box/20200517_clinical_pharmacology
Embed	<iframe src="https://card2brain.ch/box/20200517_clinical_pharmacology/embed" width="780" height="150" scrolling="no" frameborder="0"></iframe>

Which of the following is not a side effect of the cholonireceptor blocker (Atropine)?

A) Increased pulse

B) Urinary retention

C) Constipation

D) Mydriasis

I am an immunouppressive drug used to control host-versus-graft rejection of transplanted organs. Renal toxicity is my primary problem. I am commonly assayed be chromatographic techniques using whole blood as the specimen. Who am I?

A) Cyclosporine

B) Carbamazepine

C) Tacrolimus

D) any of the above

E) either A or C

Which of the following is not a side effect of the diuretics (loop diuretics)?

A) Alkalosis

B) nausea

C) hypotension

D) potassium deficits

Factors altering drug response in children and infants include which of the following?

A) Slower gastric emptying

B) greater surface area

C) less protein binding

D) decreased body water content

E) less cutaneous fat

What is the purpose for the determination of serum concentrations of the antineoplastic drug methootrexate?

A) To ensure that serum concentartions are in the therapeutic range

B) to ensure that serum concentrations are not in the toxic range

C) to determine the amount of leucovorin needed to halt methotrexate action

D) all of the above

E) only A and C

Which of the following represents a pharmacokinetic phase?

A) Absorption

B) distribution

C) administration

D) metabolism

E) excretion

Each of the following statements regarding the safety of medications used by geriatric patients is correct EXCEPT:

A) Amantadine exretion depends on renal function and can cause confusion and falls... if the dose is not adjusted for renal dysfunction

B) Benzodiazepines have a large lipid volume of distribution and are therefore relatively safe to use in geriatric patients

C) Chlorpropamide can cause hypoglycemia from prolonged action and is not safe to... use in elderly patients

D) Meperidine and its metabolite normeperidine can potentially cause seizures in older patients and so should be used sparingly in the elderly

E) Metronidazole generally can be safely administered to older patients without... alteration

Which is the most effective method of managing polypharmacy?

A) Use a brown-bag review of medications at each office visit, to ensure an ... med list

B) Limit your patients' medication list to no more than 4 medicines

C) Regularly assess patient adherence to the medication regimen

D) A and C

A decrease in renal function might be expected with:

A) Gentamicin

B) Cisplatin

C) Methotrexate

D) Busulphan

E) all of the above

Theophylline levels increased with:

A) smoking

B) Phenytoin

C) Cimetidine

D) Magnesium

Which is the best example of polypharmacy?

A) Your patient is filling her medications at more than 1 drugstore

B) Your patient is taking more than 2 medications

C) Your patient is taking more than 9 medications

D) Your patient is taking a potentially inappropriate combination of medicine

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of the ACE inhibitor (Captopril)?

A) rash

B) angioedema

C) cough

D) congestion

Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Isoflurane)?

A) Elevated lipid levels

B) nausea

C) increased blood flow to the brain

D) decreased respiratory function

Sustained prolonged use of NSAID's may reduce the antihypertensive effect of the following drug(s):

A) diuretics (e.g. furosemide)

B) beta-adrenergic blockers

C) ACE inhibitors

D) B and C only

E) A, B and C

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the half-life of a drug?

A) A half-life can be decreased in patient with renal disease

B) half-life does not change throughout a patient's life

C) liver diseases can increase half-life

D) biological half-life determines the dosage range of the drug

Which of the following are true of nonprescription drugs?

A) They are referred to as over-the counter-drugs

B) they can be taken without risk to the patient

C) they should be taken only as directed on the label

D) A, C

CYP3A4 inhibitors:

A) Fluconazole

B) St. John's Wort

C) Erythromycin

D) Rifampin

E) Grapefruit juice

Drug distribution process in group of pregnant women differs from healthy adults due to:

A) Increased volume of blood plasma and extravascular fluids

B) Decreased drug binding ability of plasma albumins

C) Decreased volume of blood plasma and extravascular fluids

D) A and B

Among antibiotics these groups are recommended to use in pregnancy:

A) penicillins and cephalosporins

B) quinolons

C) aminoglycosides

D) tetracyclines

Antibiotic resistance can spread from

A) bacteria to bacteria

B) patient to patient

C) animals to patients

D) A, B and C

To antibiotics pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic (PK/PD) profile does not belong

A) absorption, excretion

B) tissue levels

C) cost

D) peak levels, AUC, Time above MIC

To prevent the infection means:

A) Vaccine

B) Get the catheters out

C) access the experts and target the pathogen

D) A and B

Informed consent should include information on

A) voluntary participation, individual rights and confidentiality

B) duration of trial, procedures

C) A,B,D

D) insurance and compensation

First drug application to patient with disease and concomitant diseases refers to clinical trial:

A) Phase I

B) Phase II

C) Phase III

D) Phase IV

What sentence is true:

A) Adverse drug reaction as defined by WHO – any response to a drug which is noxious and unintended and which occurs at doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy

B) Adverse event = outcome that occurs while patient is taking a drug, but is not or not necessarily attributable to it

C) Serious adverse event = any adverse event that occurs in clinical study participant and meets at least one of the following indicators: death, life threatening, hospitalization, disability

D) All above

Type A (Augmented) adverse drug reaction characteristics eg. Phenothiazines – orthostatic hypotension:

A) Predictable

B) Usually dose depended

C) High morbidity, low mortality

D) All above

Incidence of adverse drug reaction – which sentence is false:

A) are always under reported

B) are the 4th-6th leading cause of death in USA

C) decrease medical costs

D) occur in 10-20% of hospital in-patients

Risk factors increasing the probability of undesirable drug interaction. Which term is false?

A) Therapy conducted by several doctors decrease a risk

B) drug advertising in mass media increases a risk

C) general accessibility of drugs, especially those from OTC (over the counter) group, sold without doctor's prescription increases a risk

D) dangerous phenomenon of patients' self-treatment increases a risk

Therapies A, B, C and D have different cost and effectiveness. Indicate dominated therapy:

A: cost: 45 000 PLN, effectiveness: 25

B: cost: 39 000 PLN, effectiveness: 20

C: cost: 41 000 PLN, effectiveness: 22

D: cost: 40 000 PLN, effectiveness: 19

46. In cost – utility analysis QALY is common measure of outcomes. Based on cost utility ratios, i.e. cost/QALY that are given for 3 therapies, choose the least favourable therapy.

A) Implementation of an artificial pacemaker in a patient with bradyarrythmia – 100 000 PLN/QALY

B) use of infliximab in treatment of severe flare of Crohn's disease – 250

C) specialistic program of neonatology care 50 000 PLN/QALY

D) aformentioned therapies concern different populations and therefore cannot be compared

Drug excretion process in pregnancy is different comparing the same process in healthy adult because of:

A) Increased plasma renal flow by 25-50%

B) Increased glomerular filtration rate by 50%

C) Faster elimination of drugs and their metabolites excreted by renal route

D) A,B,C

Which drug do NOT have any teratogenic and embryotoxic potency to the fetus?

A) Insulin

B) Antiviral drugs

C) Anticancer drugs

D) Antiepileptic drugs – phenytoine or valproate

Rational use of antibiotics requires:

A) patient recieves medication appropiately to the clinic needs

B) in doses that meet patient individual requirements in adequate period of time

C) at the lowest cost

D) A, B and C

What patient factor decides in appropriate antibiotic choice:

A) age and physiological functions, pregnancy

B) site and severity of infections

C) allergy

D) A, B and C

To antimicrobial efficacy-time dependent with no persistent effect, correlated with Time above MIC (T>MIC) belong the following antibiotic group:

A) betalactams

B) quinolones

C) aminoglycosides

D) macrolides

To use antibiotics wisely means:

A) stop treatment when cured

B) know when to say “no” to vancomycin

C) treat infection, not colonization, not contamination

D) All above

A document designed to inform the patient of the purpose and design of a clinical study,

possible side effects and benefits and if there are any other options:

A) patient informed consent

B) investigator's brochure

C) clinical protocol

D) good clinical practice

Possible risks for patient in clinical trial:

A) New treatments or interventions under study are not always better than, or even as good as, standard care

B) even if a new treatment has benefits, it may not work for every patient

C) unpleasent, serious or even lifethreatening side effects

D) A,B,C

Early study to determine the effect of investigational product on the body, ususally in healthy volunteers. It is true for clinical trilas:

A) Phase I

B) Phase II

C) Phase III

D) Phase IV

Adverse drug reaction classification - definition refers to totally abnormal effects, unrelated from the drug's known pharmacological actions; examples: anaphylaxis with penicillin or skin rashes with antibiotics. What type of ADR it is:

A) Type A – Augmented

B) Type B – Bizzare

C) Type D – Delayed

D) Type E – Ending of use

Clinical Pharmacology

Create or copy sets of flashcards

Create or copy sets of flashcards

Log in to see all the cards.

SWITCHaai

Office 365

Edulog

Apple ID

Google