Anästhesie final exam

22. The patient with confirmed sudden cardiac arrest presents PEA on ECG tracing. You should:

23. In the case of the need for additional hemodynamic shock evaluation as the preferred method of inital assessment, it is recommended to use:

24. In shock states, the serum lactate concentration is typically:

25. In patients being treated for acute heart failure, it is incorrect to say that:

26. It is not true that a dose of adrenaline to treat anaphylactic shock:

27. During resuscitation, the indication for adrenaline is:

36. Risk factors for severe sepsis and septic shock include the following:

37. Which of the following is accurate about the presentaion and physical ecamination of sepsis?

38. Spinal anesthesia is contraindicated in:

39. CPV is typically elevated in all except:

40. The following fluids may be used in the management of septic shock except:

41. Regarding to pulse oximetry find true sentence:

1. the presence of carbonmonoxide in the blood (COHb) results in an overestimation of oxygen saturation of haemoglobin (SaO2)

2. the presence of methaemoglobin in the blood (MetHb) results in an overestimation of SaO2

3. fetal Hb results in an overestimation of SaO2

4. a poor pulse oximetry trace may result in an underestimation of SaO2

5. Diathermy may interfere with waveform detection

42. With regard to capnography false is:

1. normal ranges is approximately 35-45 mmHg

2. abscence of endotracheal end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) during cardiac arrest is diagnosis of oesophageal intubation

3. PaCO2 is equal to end tidal CO2 (EtCO2)

4. In healthy subject Et-CO2-PaCO2 gradient is unsually <3 mmHg

43. Which of the following are correct doses for adult cardiac arrest?

1. atropine 0,5 mg iv

2. Epinephrine 0,5 mg im

3. Epinephrine 1mg iv

4. Amiodarone 150mg iv

5. Defibrillation (biphasic defibrilator) 150 J

44. The capnogram below is a sign that your patient has just had:

51. 34 year old man was admitted to the emergency department after a traffic accident. Physical examination: concious, in a logical touch, suffering, heart rate 120/min, blood pressure 80/50 mmHg major bleeding dure to amputation of the right limp, in CT: without head injury. Which is the most appropiate anesthetic agent during transport f the patient to operating theater?

52. Regarding CVP find false statement:

53. The false statement concerning cardiogenic shock is:

54. The inotropic drug of the first choice for septic shock is:

55. Which one of the following anesthetics is safe in patients with history of malignant hyperthermia?

56. Complication of spinal anesthesia include:

57. A 68 year old patient with a ruptured abdominal aorta aneurysm, HR 120/min, BP 80/40, SpO2 98% requires immediate laparotomy. What drug do you choose to induce anesthesia?

58. Which of the following local anesthetics is most likely to cause an allergic reaction?

59. The typical pattern of hyperdynamic septic shock is:

60. A 18 year old man is brought to the emergency department following a car accident. He is unconcious and has an obvious fractured right femur, as well as taunt abdomen. His BP is 92/58 and pulse 110. Prior to going to CT, radiology, and then surgery, the anesthesiologist requests that a PA catheter be inserted. This is done, and the following values are obtained:

SvO2 54%

Cl 2,5 L/min/MI2

PAOP 3mmHg

33. ECMO is a method of/for:

35. Sepsis can develop from:

1))The side effect of spinal anesthesia is not:

2)) Passive leg raise (PLR) test is positive when cardiac output (CO) or stroke volume (SV) are increased by:

3)) Under normal conditions intracellular fluid (ICF) is:

4)) According to the Stewart approach (difference of strong ions) the main influence on homeostasis H + have changes in concentration:

5)). Epidural hematoma arises most often as a result of:

6)) The goal of CRRT therapy (continuous renal replacement therapies) is:

7)) CPR in adults begins with rescue breaths in the case of:

8)) After the intubation of the patient, the vesicular murmur on the right side cannot be heard. The first thing you do is:

10)) One of the greatest threats to an unconscious patient is:

11)) Which of the symptoms resulting from atrial fibrillation is not an indication for urgent cardioversion:

12)) ARDS is characterized by:

1. acute onset of respiratory failure, no more than 7 days

2. bilateral infiltrates on the X-ray (or CT scan) corresponding to the pulmonary edema

3. PCWP> 18 mmHg

4. pO2 / FiO2 <300 mmHg at PEEP or CPAP> 5cmH2O

13)) In a patient with ventricular fibrillation resistant to repetition of defibrillation tests and administration of adrenaline, the most appropriate course of action is:

14.)) During the transfusion of 1 unit of red blood cell concentrate, the patient developed skin redness, shortness of breath and a decrease in blood pressure. After stopping the transfusion, the most appropriate next step is to give: