CCNA 200-125

Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?

Which of the following is needed to be enabled on a router to get back the role of Active HSRP router?

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two)

What is true about DTP? (Choose three.)

What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS marking?

View the exhibit. The Uptown router is unable to authenticate to the Downtown router. What is the cause of the problem?

After you configure a new router to connect to a host through the GigabitEthernet0/0 port of the router, you log in to the router and observe that the new link is down. Which action corrects the problem?

Which three statements about DTP are true? (Choose three.)

Which layer of the OSI model is included in Internet layer of the TCP/IP model?

View the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst switch, what is the most likely reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only?

Which three commands must you enter to create a trunk that allows VLAN 20? (Choose three.)

Routers R1 and R2 are on the same network segment, and both routers use interface GigabitEthernet0/0. If R1 loses communication to R2, which two items should you check as you begin troubleshooting? (Choose two.)

Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?

Which command do you enter to view EIGRPv6 adjacencies?

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?

Which command do you enter to enable an interface to support PPPoE on a client?

After you configure a default route to the Internet on a router, the route is missing from the routing table. Which option describes a possible reason for the problem?

Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the interface used to reach the next hop.

Which feature can validate address requests and filter out invalid messages?

What are the three major components of Cisco network virtualization? (Choose three.)

What are the addresses that will be displayed in the show ip route output if we configure the following statements? (Choose three.)

Which two DTP switch port modes allow the port to create a trunk if the neighbor port is in Trunk, Dynamic Auto, and Dynamic Desirable mode? (Select two)

Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to specific OID tree?

Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three.)

Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1 Qcompliant
trunk to another switch. What is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between switches?

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?

Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Select three)

Drag-n-drop. Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for which it is best suited on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Which two actions must you take to configure a PAgP EtherChannel between two switches, S1 and S2? (Choose two.)

What is the industry standard protocol for negotiating EtherChannel?

View the exhibit. A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on SW1 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on SW2, what will be the result of making this change on SW1?

Which statement is a Cisco Best Practice for switch port security?

How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands?

Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)

What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)