Lernkartei 010 Karteikarten T2

Karten	22
Sprache	Deutsch
Kategorie	Technik
Stufe	Andere
Erstellt / Aktualisiert	26.05.2025 / 30.05.2025
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An aircraft flying under IFR in RVSM airspace to an NDB station with magnetic heading 005°. Which Flight Level would be appropriate?

FL330

FL340

FL335

FL345

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FL330

FL340

FL335

FL345

You are flying IFR over the Netherlands. No specific minimum flight altitude has been established. The lowest FL according to SERA is a level which is at least ... above the highest obstacle located within ... of the estimated position of the aircraft.

2000 ft / 8 km

1000 ft / 8 km

1000 ft / 5 km

2000 ft / 5 km

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2000 ft / 8 km

1000 ft / 8 km

1000 ft / 5 km

2000 ft / 5 km

You are flying VFR at 1500 ft AGL. Distance to clouds must be?

clear of clouds

None, if transponder operated and clear of clouds

equal to or greater than vertical 1000 ft and horizontal 1500 m

None

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clear of clouds

None, if transponder operated and clear of clouds

equal to or greater than vertical 1000 ft and horizontal 1500 m

None

Unless landing or taking off, an IFR flight should remain at least ... above the highest obstacle located within ... of the estimated position of the aircraft according to SERA.

600 m (2000 ft), 5 km

600 m (2000 ft), 8 km

300 m (1000 ft), 8 km

300 m (1000 ft), 5 km

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600 m (2000 ft), 5 km

600 m (2000 ft), 8 km

300 m (1000 ft), 8 km

300 m (1000 ft), 5 km

Which section of the AIP contains information about Customs and Immigration arrangements at aerodromes?

AD

ENR

SUP

GEN

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AD

ENR

SUP

GEN

According to ICAO Annex 13, the State of Design and Manufacture must appoint a representative if the aircraft involved in an accident:

has a maximum mass over 2.250 kg

has a maximum mass over 5.700 kg

has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg

has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg

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has a maximum mass over 2.250 kg

has a maximum mass over 5.700 kg

has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg

has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg

Why was the EU Council Directive 94,56,EC (Accident and Incident Investigation) established?

To ensure independent and harmonised investigations to improve aviation safety in Europe

To facilitate an office in Europe closer to the EU market

To introduce a higher European standard than the common ICAO

To improve air safety in Europe disregard of the evolution of this area in the rest of the world

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To ensure independent and harmonised investigations to improve aviation safety in Europe

To facilitate an office in Europe closer to the EU market

To introduce a higher European standard than the common ICAO

To improve air safety in Europe disregard of the evolution of this area in the rest of the world

You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are these simulator hours limited?

Maximum of 100 hours not more than 15 hours in an FNPT

Maximum of 100 hours not more than 30 hours in an FNPT

Maximum of 100 hours not more than 25 hours in an FNPT

Maximum of 100 hours not more than 50 hours in an FNPT

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Maximum of 100 hours not more than 15 hours in an FNPT

Maximum of 100 hours not more than 30 hours in an FNPT

Maximum of 100 hours not more than 25 hours in an FNPT

Maximum of 100 hours not more than 50 hours in an FNPT

The minimum number of hours flown at night before an ATPL can be issued is

75

100

200

250

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75

100

200

250

The holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport except

As a co-pilot

In a single crew aircraft

As a member in a multi-crew aircraft

As a member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that such a holder is the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years

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As a co-pilot

In a single crew aircraft

As a member in a multi-crew aircraft

As a member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that such a holder is the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years

When using FMS or RNAV to follow conventional non-precision approach procedures, which two conditions must be met?

The tolerances for flight using raw data on the basic display are complied with

ATC is dually equipped

The flight deck is furnished with two competent pilots

The procedure is published by the appropriate ATS Authorities

The tolerances for flight using raw data on the basic display are complied with

ATC is dually equipped

The flight deck is furnished with two competent pilots

The procedure is published by the appropriate ATS Authorities

A departure procedure for the various types of aircraft is based on all-engines minimum net climb gradient of

0.8%

2.5%

3.3%

5.8%

0.8%

2.5%

3.3%

5.8%

What is the disadvantage of Area Navigation RNAV Approach Procedures based on VOR DME

The aircraft must be RNAV equipped

The waypoint and other data have been calculated and promulgated by States and inserted by the operator or crew

No disadvantages detected

The aircraft must be RNAV equipped

The waypoint and other data have been calculated and promulgated by States and inserted by the operator or crew

No disadvantages detected

In independent parallel approaches, the aircraft must establish on the localiser course in level flight at least how far before intercepting the glide slope

2.5 NM

1.5 NM

2.0 NM

1.0 NM

2.5 NM

1.5 NM

2.0 NM

1.0 NM

What is the maximum track distance allowed before track guidance must be acquired after completing turns for a turning departure

10 KM

10 NM

20 KM

20 NM

10 KM

10 NM

20 KM

20 NM

What is the Minimum Obstacle Clearance MOC required at the Departure End of Runway DER

Zero ft

5 m or 15 ft

Variable according to Airport needs

0.8 percent of take-off distance available

Zero ft

5 m or 15 ft

Variable according to Airport needs

0.8 percent of take-off distance available

What is the purpose of the 2.5 percent Obstacle Identification Surface OIS

provide a safe net take off path for all aircraft

dictate the minimum sector altitude MSA for an aerodrome

provide a minimum climb gradient during a Standard Instrument Departure SID

identify close-in obstacles used in designing a PDG which may be included on the SID chart

provide a safe net take off path for all aircraft

dictate the minimum sector altitude MSA for an aerodrome

provide a minimum climb gradient during a Standard Instrument Departure SID

identify close-in obstacles used in designing a PDG which may be included on the SID chart

In omnidirectional departures, what are the standard climb requirements before initiating turns

3.0 percent PDG and 150 m 492 ft

3.3 percent PDG and 120 m 394 ft

3.5 percent PDG and 120 m 394 ft

3.5 percent PDG and 150 m 492 ft

3.0 percent PDG and 150 m 492 ft

3.3 percent PDG and 120 m 394 ft

3.5 percent PDG and 120 m 394 ft

3.5 percent PDG and 150 m 492 ft

Minimum obstacle clearance MOC in an approach procedure is provided for

the whole of the primary area only

the whole of the primary area and at the inner edge of the secondary area

the whole of the secondary area only

the whole of the secondary area and at the inner edge of the primary area

the whole of the primary area only

the whole of the primary area and at the inner edge of the secondary area

the whole of the secondary area only

the whole of the secondary area and at the inner edge of the primary area

The Arrival Segment begins at

Typically 25NM from the Initial Approach Fix or when leaving airway structure

the arrival holding pattern

reaching an Obstacle Clearance of 500ft

the end of an airway overhead the aerodrome

Typically 25NM from the Initial Approach Fix or when leaving airway structure

the arrival holding pattern

reaching an Obstacle Clearance of 500ft

the end of an airway overhead the aerodrome

What observation does not require a special air-report

severe turbulence

moderate icing

moderate mountain wave

volcanic ash cloud

severe turbulence

moderate icing

moderate mountain wave

volcanic ash cloud

What is the vertical separation minimum in non RVSM airspace

A nominal 300 m 1 000 ft below FL 290 and a nominal 600 m 2 000 ft at or above this level

A nominal 300 m 1 000 ft below FL 410 or a higher level where so prescribed and a nominal 600 m 2 000 ft at or above this level

A nominal 600 m 2 000 ft below FL 290 and a nominal 1200 m 4 000 ft at or above this level

A nominal 300 m 1 000 ft below FL 310 or a higher level where so prescribed and a nominal 600 m 2 000 ft at or above this level

A nominal 300 m 1 000 ft below FL 290 and a nominal 600 m 2 000 ft at or above this level

A nominal 300 m 1 000 ft below FL 410 or a higher level where so prescribed and a nominal 600 m 2 000 ft at or above this level

A nominal 600 m 2 000 ft below FL 290 and a nominal 1200 m 4 000 ft at or above this level

A nominal 300 m 1 000 ft below FL 310 or a higher level where so prescribed and a nominal 600 m 2 000 ft at or above this level

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