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Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?
a) It is a metric which is used to calculate and measure the percentage of test cases that have been executed.
b) It is a metric, which is used to calculate and measure the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed.
c) It is a metric, which is used to calculate and measure the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed.
d) It is a metric that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not.
a) Is not correct: Statement coverage measures the percentage of statements exercised by test cases.
b) Is correct: Syllabus 4.3.1: statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code. Statement coverage is measured as the number of statements executed by the tests divided by the total number of executable statements in the test object, normally expressed as a percentage.
c) Is not correct: The coverage does not measure pass/fail.
d) Is not correct: It is a metric and does not provide true/false statements
Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true?
a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage.
b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage.
c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage.
d) Decision coverage can never reach 100%.
a) Is correct: The statement is true. Achieving 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage (syllabus chapter 4.3.3 third paragraph).
b) Is not correct: The statement is false because achieving 100 % statement coverage does not in any case mean that the decision coverage is 100 % (syllabus chapter 4.3.3 third paragraph).
c) Is not correct: The statement is false, because we can only do statements about 100% values (syllabus chapter 4.3.3 third paragraph).
d) Is not correct: The statement is false (syllabus chapter 4.3.3).
For which of the following situations is explorative testing suitable?
a) If due to time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified.
b) If the system is developed incrementally and no test charter is available.
c) If testers are available who have sufficient knowledge of similar applications and technologies.
d) If an advanced knowledge of the system already exists and evidence is to be provided that it should be tested intensively.
a) Is not correct: Exploratory testing is not suitable to speed up tests which are already specified. It is most useful when there are few or inappropriate specified requirements or significant time pressure on testing (syllabus chapter 4.4.2).
b) Is not correct: The absence of a test charter which may have been derived from the test analysis is a poor precondition for the use of exploratory testing (syllabus chapter 1.4.3 and 4.4.2).
c) Is correct: Exploratory tests should be performed by experienced testers with knowledge of similar applications and technologies (syllabus chapter 4.4 and 1.4.2).
d) Is not correct: Explorative testing alone is not suitable to provide evidence that the test was very intensive, instead the evidence is provided in combination with other test methods (syllabus chapter 4.4.2).
An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment:
• less than or equal to 2 years,
• more than 2 years but less than 5 years,
• 5 to 10 years inclusively or longer than 10 years.
What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the bonus?
a) 3.
b) 5.
c) 2.
d) 4.
a) Is not correct: one too few (see the 4 correct partitions in d).
b) Is not correct: one too much (see the 4 correct partitions in d).
c) Is not correct: two too few (see the 4 correct partitions in d).
d) Is correct: The 4 equivalence partitions correspond to the description in the question; i.e. at least one test case must be created for each equivalence partition 1. equivalence partition: 0 ≤ employment time ≤ 2. 2. equivalence partition: 2 < employment time < 5. 3. equivalence partition: 5 ≤ employment time ≤ 10. 4. equivalence partition: 10 < employment time.
A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution:
1. 640x480.
2. 1280x720.
3. 1600x1200.
4. 1920x1080.
Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement?
a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case).
b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2 test cases).
c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement (4 test cases).
d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the requirement (1 test case).
c) Is correct: This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete values. Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by itself, therefore each will be tested when using equivalence partitioning test technique.
Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?
a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and their guidelines to be used.
b) The test manager plans and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies the tests and decides on the test automation framework.
c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object.
d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.
a) Is not correct: Selection of tools is a test manager task (syllabus 5.1.2 11. dot.).
b) Is correct: See Syllabus 5.1.2 (test manager 2.+ 4.+ 8.dot; tester 5.+ 6.dot).
c) Is not correct: The test manager decides on the release of the test object (syllabus chapter 5.1.2)
d) Is not correct: The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager does the prioritization (syllabus chapter 5.1.2).
Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?
a) Percentage of executed test cases.
b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution.
c) Coverage of requirements by source code.
d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed .
a) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 5.3.1: test case execution (e.g. number of test cases run/not run, and test cases passed/failed).
b) Is not correct: This metric can be measured, but its value is low. The number of testers does not give any information about the quality of the test object or test progress.
c) Is not correct: the coverage of requirements by source code is not measured during test execution. At most, the TEST(!) coverage of the code or requirements is measured.
d) Is not correct: This metric is part of test preparation and not test execution.
Which TWO of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?
a) Budget limitations.
b) Test objectives.
c) Test log.
d) Failure rate.
e) Use cases.
a) Is correct: According to syllabus chapter 5.2.1 budgeting (7.dot) and making decisions about what to test (4.dot) are documented in the test plan. This means when you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing is needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted.
b) Is correct: See syllabus 5.2.1.
c) Is not correct: See syllabus 1.4.2, test monitoring and control.
d) Is not correct: See syllabus chapter 5.3.1, common test metrics, 4. dot.
e) Is not correct: It is a part of test analysis (syllabus chapter 1.4.2)
Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing?
a) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, schedule and status about fixing errors and remaining risks.
b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness.
c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness.
d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost.
a) Is correct: See syllabus chapter 5.2.3 (all 5 dots).
b) Is not correct: The “degree of tester’s independence” does not play a role in exit criteria (syllabus chapter 5.2.3).
c) Is not correct: “Availability of test environment” is an entry criterion, see syllabus 5.2.3 3. dot.
d) Is not correct: “The availability of testable requirements” is an entry criterion (syllabus chapter 5.2.3).
Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?
a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing.
b) Deviations from the test approach.
c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria.
d) Evaluation of the quality of the test item.
a) Is correct: This information has been defined earlier in the test project.
b) Is not correct: This information is included in a test report; see the syllabus chapter 5.3.2: information on what occurred during a test period.
c) Is not correct: This information is included in a test report; see syllabus chapter 5.3.2: Information and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic benefit of continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of confidence in the tested software.
d) Is not correct: This information is included in a test report; see syllabus chapter 5.3.2: Information and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic benefit of continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of confidence in the tested software.
The project develops a "smart" heating thermostat. The control algorithms of the thermostat were modeled as Matlab/Simulink models and run on the internet connected server. The thermostat uses the specifications of the server to trigger the heating valves.
The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan:
1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test.
2. The control algorithms on the server are tested during implementation using continuous integration.
3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing.
4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together with external security experts.
What four common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the test plan?
a) methodical, analytical, reactive and performance preserving.
b) analytical, model-based, consultative and reactive.
c) model-based, methodical, analytical and consultative.
d) performance-preserving, consultative, reactive and methodical.
See syllabus chapter 5.2.2
1.: Exploratory testing is a common technique employed in reactive strategies, whereby the explorative testing is assigned to the experience-based testing category
2. The control algorithms is ‘modelled’ on the server = model-based strategy.
3. Risk-based testing = analytical approach, where tests are designed and prioritized based on the level of risk.
4. Consultative = Driven primarily by the advice, guidance, or instructions of stakeholders, business domain experts, or technology experts, who may be outside the test team or outside the organization itself.
Thus:
b) Is correct
Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?
a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project.
b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers.
c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team.
d) Average of calculations collected from business experts.
a) Is correct: See syllabus chapter 5.2.6: the metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values.
b) Is not correct: This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts (syllabus chapter 5.2.6).
c) Is not correct: This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the responsible team of the tasks or by experts (syllabus chapter 5.2.6).
d) Is not correct: This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts (syllabus chapter 5.2.6).
You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows:
• Coffee size (small, medium, large),
• Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units),
• Milk (yes or no),
• Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla).
Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:
Title: Low coffee temperature.
Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C )
Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
Degree of risk: Medium
Priority: Normal
What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?
a) The actual test result.
b) Data identifying the tested coffee machine.
c) Status of the defect.
d) Ideas for improving the test case.
a) Is not correct: The test result is given in the short summary.
b) Is correct: When testing different versions of software, identifying information is necessary (syllabus chapter 5.6, paragraph: “A defect report….” 4. dot).
c) Is not correct: You are just writing the defect report; hence the status is automatically open.
d) Is not correct: This information is useful for the tester but does not need to be included in the defect report.
Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools?
a) It is easy to create regression tests.
b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets.
c) It is easy to design tests for security testing.
d) It is easy to run regression tests.
a) Is not correct: The benefits are not when creating regressions tests, more in executing them.
b) Is not correct: This is done by configuration management tools.
c) Is not correct: This needs specialized tools.
d) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 6.1.2: Reduction in repetitive manual work (e.g. running regression tests, environment set up/tear down tasks, re-entering the same test data, and checking against coding standards), thus saving time.
Which test tool (A-D) is characterized by the classification (1-4) below?
1. Tool support for management of testing and testware.
2. Tool support for static testing.
3. Tool support for test execution and logging.
4. Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.
A. Coverage tools.
B. Configuration management tools.
C. Review tools.
D. Monitoring tools.
a) 1A, 2B, 3D, 4C.
b) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A.
c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B.
d) 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D.
syllabus chapter 6.1.1
Tool support for management of testing and testware = Configuration management tools (1B).
Tool support for static testing = Review Tools (2C).
Tool support for test execution and logging = Coverage tools (3A).
Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis = Performance testing tools / Monitoring tools / Dynamic analysis tools (4D).
Thus: d) Is correct
What is quality?
a) Part of quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled.
b) The degree to which a component, system or process meets specified requirements and/or user/customer needs and expectations.
c) The degree to which a component or system protects information and data so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization.
d) The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure costs.
a) Is not correct: this is the Glossary definition of quality assurance.
b) Is correct: this is the Glossary definition of quality.
c) Is not correct: this is the Glossary definition of security.
d) Is not correct: this is the Glossary definition of cost of quality.
Which of the following is a typical test objective?
a) Preventing defects
b) Repairing defects
c) Comparing actual results to expected results
d) Analyzing the cause of failure
a) Correct answer. This is an objective listed in section 1.1.
b) Is not correct: this is debugging per section 1.1.2.
c) Is not correct: this is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process described in section 1.4.2.
d) Is not correct: this is part of debugging per section 1.1.2.
A phone ringing in an adjac ent cubicle momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is:
a) The root cause
b) The failure
c) The error
d) The defect
a) Is not correct: the root cause is the distraction that the programmer experienced while programming
b) Is not correct: the accepting of invalid inputs is the failure.
c) Is not correct: the error is the mistaken thinking that resulted in putting the defect in the code.
d) Is correct: the problem in the code is a defect.
A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this statement?
a) Defect clustering
b) Testing shows the presence of defects
c) Absence of error fallacy
d) Root cause analysis
Select ONE option.
a) Is not correct: defect clustering has to do with where defects are most likely to be found, not whether all of them can be found.
b) Is correct: testing can show the presence of defects but cannot prove their absence, which makes it impossible to know if you have caught all the bugs. Further, the impossibility of exhaustive testing makes it impossible for you to catch all the bugs.
c) Is not correct: this principle says that you can find and remove many bugs but still release an unsuccessful software product, which is not what the product owner is asking you to ensure.
d) Is not correct: root cause analysis is not a testing principle.
Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this selftesting activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively?
a) Good communication skills
b) Code coverage
c) Evaluating code defects
d) Attention to detail
a) Is not correct: the programmer appears to be performing unit testing on their own.
b) Is not correct: code coverage is useful for unit testing, but it is not a tester mindset described in section 1.5.2
c) Is not correct: per section 1.5.2, the programmer’s mindset included contemplating what might be wrong with the code, but that is not a tester’s mindset
d) Is correct: this tester mindset in section 1.5.2, attention to detail, will help programmers find defects during unit testing
Consider the following testing activities:
1. Selecting regression tests
2. Evaluating completeness of test execution
3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports
4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk
Consider the following ways traceability can help testing:
A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items
B. Make testing auditable
C. Provide information to assess process quality
D. Analyze the impact of changes
Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity?
a) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A
b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
d) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C
Traceability assists with:
• Selecting regression tests in terms of analyzing the impact of changes.
• Evaluating completeness of test execution which makes testing auditable.
• Identifying which user stories have open defect reports which improves understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items.
• Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk which provides information to assess test process quality (i.e., alignment of test effort with risk).
Therefore, d is correct, per section 1.4.4
A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation?
a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage
b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly
c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects
d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality
a) Is not correct: while enabling required tests to be identified in an early stage is a testing contribution to success per section 1.2.1, there is no indication in the question that the tester did so.
b) Is not correct: ensuring processes are carried out properly is part of quality assurance, not a testing contribution to success, per sections 1.2.1 and 1.2.2
c) Is correct: reducing the risk of fundamental design defects is a testing contribution to success per section 1.2.1. Database structure is related to design, and performance problems can be a significant product risk.
d) Is not correct: while reducing the risk of untestable functionality is a testing contribution to success per section 1.2.1, the tester here has not identified something untestable, but rather something that would result in performance tests failing
Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process?
a) Analyzing a defect
b) Designing test data
c) Assigning a version to a test item
d) Writing a user story
a) Is not correct: analyzing a defect is part of debugging, not testing, per section 1.1.2
b) Is correct: creating test data is a test implementation task per section 1.4.2.
c) Is not correct: while a tester may need to identify a test item’s version for results reporting purposes, assigning a test item’s version is part of configuration management, per section 5.4
d) Is not correct: writing a user story is not a testing activity and should be done by the product owner
You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test?
a) A functional test during the integration test level
b) A non-functional test during the integration test level
c) A functional test during the component test level
d) A non-functional test during the component test level
See section 2.2 for the description of component and integration test levels, and section 2.3 for the description of functional and non-functional tests.
a) Is not correct: while this test does match the description of an integration test, it is a non-functional test.
b) Is correct: this test matches the description of an integration test and it is a non-functional test.
c) Is not correct: this test doesn’t match the description of a component test and it is not a functional test.
d) Is not correct: while this test is a non-functional test, it doesn’t match the description of a component test.
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing
b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design
c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing
d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing
a) Is not correct: while impact analysis is useful during maintenance testing, per section 2.4, it is not necessary for confirmation testing, since confirmation testing is on the intended effects of a bug fix or other change per section 2.3.
b) Is not correct: per section 2.3, confirmation and regression testing are two separate activities, and confirmation testing is not part of system design.
c) Is correct: per section 2.4, impact analysis can be used to select regression tests for maintenance testing.
d) Is not correct: confirmation testing is not part of impact analysis, per section 2.4, though confirmation testing will typically happen during maintenance testing
Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:
1. Defects in separately testable modules or objects
2. Not focused on identifying defects
3. Defects in interfaces and interactions
4. Defects in the whole test object
Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above?
a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test
b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test
c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test
d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test
Performance testing is a test type per section 2.3, not a test level. Per section 2.2., component testing focuses on defects in separately testable modules or objects, integration testing on defects in interfaces and interactions, system testing on defects in the whole test object, and acceptance testing is not typically focused on identifying defects.
Therefore, c is the correct answer
A mass market operating system software product is designed to run on any PC hardware with an x86- family processor. You are running a set of tests to look for defects related to support of the various PCs that use such a processor and to build confidence that important PC brands will work. What type of test are you performing?
a) Performance test
b) Processor test
c) Functional test
d) Portability test
a) Is not correct: while per section 2.3.2, the test described is a non-functional test, it is a portability test, not a performance test.
b) Is not correct: processor test is not a test type defined in section 2.3.
c) Is not correct: per section 2.3.2, the test described is a nonfunctional test, specifically a portability test.
d) Is correct: per section 2.3.2, testing supported devices is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test.
During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously-unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run?
a) Confirmation tests
b) Regression tests
c) Functional tests
d) Change-related tests
The change in behavior may be either functional or nonfunctional, per section 2.3.1 and 2.3.2, but, per section 2.3.4, you need to run change-related tests, some of which are confirmation tests and others are regression tests.
Therefore, d is the correct answer.
In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting?
a) Facilitator
b) Programmer
c) Author
d) Project manager
a) Is correct: per section 3.2.2, the facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings.
b) Is not correct: this is not a role name for a formal review participant per section 3.2.2.
c) Is not correct: per section 3.2.2, the facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings.
d) Is not correct: per section 3.2.2, the facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings
You are reading a user story in the product backlog to prepare for a meeting with the product owner and a developer, noting potential defects as you go. Which of the following statements is true about this activity?
a) It is not a static test, because static testing involves execution of the test object
b) It is not a static test, because static testing is always performed using a tool
c) It is a static test, because any defects you find could be found cheaper during dynamic testing
d) It is a static test, because static testing does not involve execution of the test object.
a) Is not correct: per section 3.1, static testing does not involve execution of the test object.
b) Is not correct: per section 3.1, some static tests involve the use of a tool, especially static analysis, but reviews (such as the activity described here) do not necessarily involve the use of a tool.
c) Is not correct: the review activity described here is part of a static test, but, per section 3.1.2, defects found in static tests are usually cheaper than those found in dynamic testing.
d) Is correct: per section 3.1, static testing does not involve execution of the test object.
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