Pharma quizzes

An example of fluoroquinolone with some activity against anaerobic bacteria but insignificant against Ps. aeruginosa?

Rifampin:

A - inhibits DNA synthesis

B - is bactericidal for mycobacteria

C - induces most of cytochrome P450 isoforms

What is the most severe complication of insulin treatment?

When the patient is given pramlintide, the recovery from hypoglycemia may be delayed since the drug:

Which fluoroquinolone is NOT excreted renally?

Insulins may be administered:

A - intravenously

B - subcutaneously

C - as inhalation

Prolactin is used in the treatment of:

Potassium perchlorate is used:

Which drug is the analog of the posterior pituitary hormone?

From the second-line drugs for tuberculosis which one is a structural analog of D-alanine?

What is NOT a characteristic adverse effect of fluoroquinolones?

Carbimazole is converted to:

Which insulin is NOT the human analog?

Which adverse reaction may occur during the trimethoprim administration?

A - megaloblastic anemia

B - sideroblastic anemia

C - leukopenia, granulocytopenia

The most common adverse reaction to the thioamides is:

Vitamin B12 absorption may be decreased by:

All of the listed drugs are antagonists of the receptors EXCEPT:

Oxytocin is given:

A- sublingually

B-intramuscularly

C- intravenously

Which drug is active against Myc. tuberculosis at pH 5.5 and acts within lysosomes?

Thyroxine (T4) when compared to liothyronine (T3) has:

Mycobacterial arabinosyl transferase is inhibited by:

What is NOT true about SGLT2 inhibitors?

Ciprofloxacin is the least active against:

Which drugs may be used in the treatment of traveler's diarrhea?

A- ciprofloxacin

B- rifaximin

C- nitrofurantoin

Which drug, used in the treatment of glaucoma is NOT an alpha receptors agonist?

What is true about isavuconazole?

What is NOT true about mirabegron?

Which drug may be used in the management of pheochromocytoma?

A - phenoxybenzamine

B - phentolamine

C - metyrosine

Which immunosuppressant drug belongs to the proliferation signal inhibitors?

A - sirolimus

B - tacrolimus

C - everolimus

Which is NOT the most probable adverse effect of amphotericin B when given intravenously?

The highest risk of rebound effect after the abrupt drug withdrawal is in the case of:

which drug inhibits epoxidation of squalene in fungi?

Which is the direct-acting choline ester?

A - bethanechol

B - carbachol

C - cevimeline

Which physical form of amphotericin B represents conventional formulation?

An example of an immunosuppressant which is a sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulator is:

All symptoms are characteristic in atropine overdose EXCEPT:

Which is NOT the indication for neostigmine?

The most important indication for rivastigmine is:

Which immunosuppressant agent may cause hemorrhagic cystitis which may be prevented by mesna administration?

The antifungal azoles are prone to drug interactions because they: