Pharma quizzes

Pharma teams quiz

Pharma teams quiz


Set of flashcards Details

Flashcards 463
Language English
Category Medical
Level University
Created / Updated 23.06.2022 / 01.08.2022
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Which is NOT the phase II reactions?

The drug has an apparent volume of distribution of 350 L. It suggests that the drug:

If a drug has high affinity to the receptors it means that it:

The drug of choice in Fasciola hepatica (sheep liver fluke) is:

Nifurtimox has found the use only in the treatment of:

A drug with a half-life of 6 hours is administered in continuous IV infusion. How long will it take to reach 90% of its final steady-state level?

Which drugs are poorly (or not) absorbed from gastrointestinal tract:

A - piperazine

B - pyrantel

C - niclosamide

Which drug belongs to the systemic amebicides used in e.g., hepatic abscess?

On the presented figure the red arrow shows:

 

In a 5-year-old child was diagnosed with enterobiasis. Which drug is the most appropriate therapy?

The TD50 means:

The action of atropine and muscarine is the example of:

Genetically altered activity of which of the following enzymes may influence the metabolism of warfarin?

What is NOT true about drugs' bioavailability?

Which antiprotozoal drug acts primarily by interference with heme polymerization?

Which antiprotozoal drug is additionally active against tapeworms?

Ivermectin is very effective in the treatment of:

If the drug has an oral bioavailability of 30%, Vd is equal to 6L, and a targeted plasma concentration of 20 mcg/L, what should be the oral loading dose?

Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminths is the mechanism of action of:

Drugs given in inhalation:

Plasma levels of the drug were checked and the results were as follows:

after 2 hour - 600 ng/ml

after 4 hours - 300 ng/ml

after 6 hours - 150 ng/ml

after 8 hour - 75 ng/ml

It means that:

If the pKa of a drug is 3 it means that the drug:

Which drug is NOT useful in the prevention of malaria in travelers' in chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum

Which is only surface-acting local anesthetic?

A - cocaine

B - procaine

C - benzocaine

What is the indication for mannitol?

What is true about propofol?

A - causes vomiting

B - gives rapid recovery

C - may cause hypotension

Which is volatile general anesthetic?

A - sevoflurane

B - isoflurane 

C - nitrous oxide

Which one is barbiturate IV general anesthetic?

A - thiopental

B - methohexital

C - etomidate

Which is amide-type local anesthetic?

A - tetracaine

B - bupivacaine

C - lidocaine

Which drugs cause neuro-muscular paralysis?

A - sugammadex

B - rocuronium

C - succinylcholine

What is the adverse effect of spironolactone?

What may be the adverse effect of local anesthetics?

A - hypersensitivity reactions

B - conduction disturbances in heart

C - tongue numbness

Which diuretics are contraindicated in patients with liver cirrhosis

Which drugs may reduce lithium-induced polyuria:

A - hydrochlorothiazide

B - amiloride

C - torasemide

What is NOT true about finarenone?

Which drugs do NOT release histamine?

A - cisatracurium

B - rocuronium

C - vecuronium

Na+/Cl- transporter (NCC) is blocked by:

What is NOT true about conivaptan?

Which drug relaxes skeletal muscles and may be used in neurological disorders with muscle spasm?

A - tizanidine

B - baclofen

C - cyclobenzaprine

What is NOT the adverse effect of furosemide?