Set of flashcards Pharma quizzes (Page 5 of 12)

Flashcards	463
Language	English
Category	Medical
Level	University
Created / Updated	23.06.2022 / 01.08.2022
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Which is NOT the phase II reactions?

a)water conjugation

b)glycine conjugation

c)glutathione conjugation

d)debrisoquin conjugation

The drug has an apparent volume of distribution of 350 L. It suggests that the drug:

a)is binds strongly to plasma proteins or other tissue proteins

b)does not undergo first-pass metabolism

c)is not cleared by the kidneys

d)has a long half-life and accumulates in the organism

If a drug has high affinity to the receptors it means that it:

a)binds to and activates the receptors

b)binds only to the ion channels

c)binds strongly to the receptors

d)binds to and inhibits the receptors

The drug of choice in Fasciola hepatica (sheep liver fluke) is:

a)niclosamide

b)bithionol

c)ivermectin

d)thiabendazole

Nifurtimox has found the use only in the treatment of:

a)microsporidiasis

b)Chagas disease

c)Hansen's disease

d)cryptosporidiasis

A drug with a half-life of 6 hours is administered in continuous IV infusion. How long will it take to reach 90% of its final steady-state level?

a)about 9 hours

b)about 20 hours

c)about 30 hours

d)about 12 hours

Which drugs are poorly (or not) absorbed from gastrointestinal tract:

A - piperazine

B - pyrantel

C - niclosamide

a)A, B, and C

b)only A and C

c)only A and B

d)only B and C

Which drug belongs to the systemic amebicides used in e.g., hepatic abscess?

a)diloxanide

b)iodoquinol

c)dehydroemetine

d)paromomycin

On the presented figure the red arrow shows:

a)AUC

b)lag time

c)loading dose

d)Cmax

In a 5-year-old child was diagnosed with enterobiasis. Which drug is the most appropriate therapy?

a)brexpiprazole

b)pantoprazole

c)fluconazole

d)mebendazole

The TD₅₀ means:

a)the dose which is 50% of the maximum dose

b)number of patients needed to clinical trial

c)50% of a steady-state concentration

d)median toxic dose

The action of atropine and muscarine is the example of:

a)synergism

b)competitive antagonism

c)allosteric activation

d)irreversible antagonist

Genetically altered activity of which of the following enzymes may influence the metabolism of warfarin?

a)CYP2D6

b)TPMT

c)CYP2C9

d)UGT1A1

What is NOT true about drugs' bioavailability?

a)low bioavailability means that the drug is not very much active

b)liver drug metabolism may decrease the bioavailability

c)bioavailability 50% means that half of the given doses reaches circulation in intact form

d)drugs given subcutaneously may have 100% bioavailability

Which antiprotozoal drug acts primarily by interference with heme polymerization?

a)quinine

b)nifurtimox

c)pentamidine

d)metronidazole

Which antiprotozoal drug is additionally active against tapeworms?

a)mefloquine

b)paromomycin

c)benznidazole

d)suramin

Ivermectin is very effective in the treatment of:

a)Mazzotti syndrome (reaction)

b)blackwater fever

c)river blindness

d)Stevens-Johnson syndrome

If the drug has an oral bioavailability of 30%, Vd is equal to 6L, and a targeted plasma concentration of 20 mcg/L, what should be the oral loading dose?

a)400 ng

b)4 mg

c)0.4 mg

d)40 mcg

Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminths is the mechanism of action of:

a)diethylcarbamazine

b)albendazole

c)ivermectin

Drugs given in inhalation:

a)are always formulated as pro-drugs

b)has often rapid onset of action

c)are used only in bronchial asthma or COPD

d)are never absorbed to the circulation

Plasma levels of the drug were checked and the results were as follows:

after 2 hour - 600 ng/ml

after 4 hours - 300 ng/ml

after 6 hours - 150 ng/ml

after 8 hour - 75 ng/ml

It means that:

a)every hour 300 ng of drug is eliminated

b)drug has zero-order kinetics of elimination

c)drug has first-order kinetics of elimination

d)the half-life of this drug is 4 hours

If the pKa of a drug is 3 it means that the drug:

a)is a weak acid

b)is and agonist of the receptors

c)Is a strong acid

d)is equally ionized and unionized in pH=3

Which drug is NOT useful in the prevention of malaria in travelers' in chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum

a)chloroquine

b)doxycycline

c)mefloquine

d)malarone

Which is only surface-acting local anesthetic?

A - cocaine

B - procaine

C - benzocaine

a)B and C

b)A and B

c)A and C

d)A, B and C

What is the indication for mannitol?

a)acute dehydration states

b)nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

c)acute mountain sickness

d)increased intracranial pressure

What is true about propofol?

A - causes vomiting

B - gives rapid recovery

C - may cause hypotension

a)A and B

b)A, B and C

c)A and C

d)B and C

Which is volatile general anesthetic?

A - sevoflurane

B - isoflurane

C - nitrous oxide

a)A, B and C

b)A and C

c)A and B

d)B and C

Which one is barbiturate IV general anesthetic?

A - thiopental

B - methohexital

C - etomidate

a)B and C

b)A and B

c)A and C

d)A, B and C

Which is amide-type local anesthetic?

A - tetracaine

B - bupivacaine

C - lidocaine

a)A and B

b)B and C

c)A and C

d)A, B and C

Which drugs cause neuro-muscular paralysis?

A - sugammadex

B - rocuronium

C - succinylcholine

a)A and B

b)A, B and C

c)B and C

d)A and C

What is the adverse effect of spironolactone?

a)gynecomastia

b)kidney stones

c)alkalosis

d)hypokalemia

What may be the adverse effect of local anesthetics?

A - hypersensitivity reactions

B - conduction disturbances in heart

C - tongue numbness

a)A and C

b)A and B

c)A, B and C

d)B and C

Which diuretics are contraindicated in patients with liver cirrhosis

a)loop diuretics

b)carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

c)thiazide diuretics

d)SGLT2 inhibitors

Which drugs may reduce lithium-induced polyuria:

A - hydrochlorothiazide

B - amiloride

C - torasemide

a)A, B, and C

b)only A and C

c)only B and C

d)only A and B

What is NOT true about finarenone?

a)accumulates similarly in the heart and the kidneys

b)results in less hyperkalemia than spironolactone

c)may be useful for cardioprotection

d)has greater blood pressure-lowering effect than spironolactone

Which drugs do NOT release histamine?

A - cisatracurium

B - rocuronium

C - vecuronium

a)A and C

b)A, B and C

c)A and B

d)B and C

Na⁺/Cl^- transporter (NCC) is blocked by:

a)triamterene

b)indapamide

c)acetazoalmide

d)bumetanide

What is NOT true about conivaptan?

a)causes natriuresis

b)antagonizes vasopressin receptors

c)reduces water reabsorption

d)is used in congestive heart failure

Which drug relaxes skeletal muscles and may be used in neurological disorders with muscle spasm?

A - tizanidine

B - baclofen

C - cyclobenzaprine

a)A and B

b)B and C

c)A, B and C

d)A and C

What is NOT the adverse effect of furosemide?

a)hypoglycemia

b)hyponatremia

c)hypocalcemia

d)hypokalemia

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