card2brain.ch

Carbon monoxide poisoning can cause headaches. These are usually categorised as which of the following types?

Throbbing

Localised

Punctuated (sharp)

Intermittent

Which equipment is necessary to operate in RVSM airspace?

1, 3 and 4.

3, 4 and 5.

2, 3 and 4.

1, 3 and 5.

According to ICAO Annex 6, a flight data analysis programme shall contain adequate safeguards to protect the (1) _____ in accordance with (2) _____.

(1) completeness of the data; (2) ICAO Annex 17

(1) source(s) of data; (2) ICAO Annex 19

(1) completeness of the data; (2) ICAO Annex 19

(1) source(s) of data; (2) ICAO Annex 17

A category II operation (CAT II) is an instrument precision approach and landing using ILS or MLS with:

a DH below 50 ft and a RVR of less than 200 m but not less than 75 m.

a DH below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft and a RVR of not less than 300 m.

a DH below 100 ft but not lower than 50 ft and a RVR of not less than 250 m.

a DH below 100 ft but not lower than 50 ft and a RVR of not less than 200 m.

An operator shall establish and maintain a flight safety programme. Who may the operator nominate as responsible for that programme? (Assume the people mentioned are not performing any other functions or roles.) 1- accountable manager 2- line captain 3- finance director 4- chief executive officer

1, 2 and 4

2 and 3

1 and 2

3 and 4

You are flying in RVSM airspace. What altitude deviation should be reported by the operator?

+/- 245 ft of deviation because of inaccuracy of the altimeter

+/- 245 ft of deviation from true altitude

+/- 200 ft of deviation because of inaccuracy of the altimeter

+/- 200 ft of deviation from true altitude

On a long haul flight, one of the pilots will not be able to complete the flight duty. There have been NO unforeseen events. Can the duty be extended?

At the commander's discretion.

Depending on the crew rest facilities available.

No, the duty cannot be extended.

Yes, at the operator's Flight Ops Manager's discretion.

Who is responsible for applying the rule that passengers must not use portable electronic devices (PED) on board an aircraft during the flight?

Commander

Pilot Flying

Operator

ICAO

For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in...

90 seconds.

132 seconds.

60 seconds.

120 seconds.

According to the Certification Specifications for Large Aeroplanes (CS-25), if a fuel-jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning the required quantity of fuel within...

60 minutes.

30 minutes.

15 minutes.

45 minutes.

During a transatlantic flight, a passenger falls ill and items from the emergency medical kit are required. Where would the emergency medical kit be located?

In any overhead locker.

A location to prohibit incorrect use.

In the overhead lockers for the first row.

A suitable location for the use of both crew and passengers.

Which of the following risks can be identified in a SNOWTAM? 1. Snow 2. Lightning 3. Water 4. Oil spills 5. Windshear

1 and 3

1 only

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

1, 3, 5

An aircraft starts the take-off run but at 60 knots IAS, the pilot rejects the take-off. What shall the flight crew do next in respect to the brakes?

If the tires/wheels didn’t explode/ignite you can take-off immediately.

Calculate the time for brake cooling, wait as necessary and then take-off.

ATC needs to be asked for brake cooling before second take-off.

If the aircraft has carbon brakes, you can take-off immediately.

You are planning to cross the North Atlantic (NAT) airspace during a period when no Organized Track System (OTS) is in effect, and instead on a random route. Which flight level should be flight planned?

Use a flight level corresponding to the last published OTS.

Any flight level, as long as it works with traffic flows.

Use a flight level corresponding to the next published OTS.

Use a flight level based on PBCS requirements.

A low visibility take-off is a take-off with...

Visibility less than 550 m.

RVR less than 400 m but not less than 75 m.

RVR less than 550 m.

Visibility less than 400 m but not less than 75 m.

In accordance with OPS regulations, refuelling with non-wide cut fuel performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft is acceptable provided, among other conditions...

all flight crew remain at their station.

the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.

the fire brigade truck is close to the aircraft, ready for fire fighting.

all the aircraft doors are completely open.

An aircraft experiences an in-flight contingency whilst flying in the NAT HLA and unable to contact for an amended clearance. What procedure shall the aircraft fly?

Turn left or right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track by 5 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then establish a 500 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track by 10 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then establish a 300 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn left or right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track by 5 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then establish a 300 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track or SLOP by 5 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then climb establish a 300 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Aeroplanes that were first registered in a Member State after 1st April 1995 and with more than what Maximum Certified Take-off Mass should be equipped with a crew member interphone system?

10000 kg

5700 kg

15000 kg

27000 kg

According to OPS regulations, if no alternate aerodrome is required, the flight must be conducted so that the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome is not less than...

fuel to fly 15 minutes at 1500 ft above the destination aerodrome.

fuel equal to 5% of trip fuel.

fuel to fly 30 minutes at holding speed and FL100.

final reserve fuel.

For Commercial Air Transport operations, who approves the method for establishing minimum flight altitudes?

In Europe, Eurocontrol

The operator

The ATS (Air Traffic Services) unit

The Competent Authority

The Standards and Recommended Practices contained in ICAO Annex 6, Part I, are applicable to...

the operation of aeroplanes by operators authorised to conduct international commercial air transport operations.

all aeroplanes and helicopters engaged in international general aviation operations.

all aeroplanes and helicopters engaged in international commercial air transport operations.

all international general aviation aeroplane operations, including large aeroplanes, turbojet aeroplanes, and corporate aviation operations.

The Single European Sky legislation is not applicable. Consequently, the SSR transponders should operate in accordance with the relevant provisions of Volume IV of ICAO Annex...

6

18

10

11

According to OPS regulations, for an IFR flight, the selection of a destination alternate is not required when...

the destination aerodrome has two runways with an ILS approach.

the destination is isolated.

an adequate take-off alternate is available.

the duration of the planned flight does not exceed 8 hours and the weather forecast calls for VMC conditions at the destination aerodrome.

What information regarding the operator is contained on an AOC (Air Operators Certificate)?

Operational points of contact.

Details of the airline's scheduling.

Name of the accountable manager.

List of aerodromes operated into.

A jet transport aeroplane is landing at an airport situated close to a noise-sensitive area at 23:59. Noise Abatement Procedures are in force between 20:00 and 03:00. Use of reverse thrust is...

allowed after obtaining ATC permission, as the landing is performed within the Noise Abatement period.

allowed only if a malfunction is experienced related to the braking capability of the aircraft.

allowed as the Noise Abatement Procedures permit this during landing.

prohibited under all circumstances, as Noise Abatement Procedures are in force.

A pilot is flying a light aircraft in non-European control airspace without an SSR transponder. In which ICAO Annex should the pilot find information about this operation?

Annex 17

Annex 18

Annex 6

Annex 10

Annex 11

Refer to the figure. What type of hazardous materials does the label indicate?

Flammable solids

Explosives

Oxidizing agent

Flammable liquids

Corrosive substances

While flying in the NAT OTS (North Atlantic Organised Track System), you need to deviate to avoid weather by 4 NM from the track centreline. You can not get clearance from ATC. Which of the following options should you do? 1. Look out for other aircraft both visually and on ACAS 2. Declare an emergency on 121.500 MHz and inform other pilots on 123.450 MHz 3. Inform other nearby aircraft on 121.500 MHz 4. If possible deviate away from the track 5. Climb or descend by 300 ft 6. Ensure all aircraft lights are on

1, 3, 4 and 6

1, 2, 4 and 6

2, 3, 5 and 6

1, 3, 4 and 5

What is one main factor to be remembered when considering the ditching of an aircraft?

It is usually best to ditch perpendicular to, and on top of, the primary swell system, regardless of the sea state, except in high wind conditions.

When deciding to ditch, in any direction, considerations of the wind may be omitted.

On the high seas, it is usually best to ditch parallel to, and on top of the primary swell system, except in high wind conditions.

On the high seas, it is usually best to ditch in any direction considered necessary, regardless of the sea state.

To act as commander in commercial air transport under IFR in a single-pilot multi-engine aeroplane, how many hours of flight time on aeroplanes must the holder of a CPL(A) have?

200 h + IR

700 h + 400 h PIC

500 h + Instrument Rating

700 h + 200 h PIC

When operating in the North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA), when is an altitude deviation report required? 1. When deviating altitude by 200 ft for any reason 2. When deviating altitude by 300 ft without ATC clearance 3. When deviating for wake turbulence avoidance 4. When deviating from your route in a contingency 5. When deviating altitude 300 ft for weather

1, 2 and 4

2, 4 and 5

2, 3 and 5

1, 3 and 5

Referring to ICAO Annex 6, parts I and III, relating to commercial aeroplane and helicopter operations, the responsible for ensuring compliance of operations with respect to laws, regulations and procedures is...

The commander

ICAO

The operator

The authority

An operator has to establish a management system (with compliance monitoring). Who does the feedback of findings go through?

Safety manager

Competent authority

Accountable manager

Compliance monitoring manager

The abbreviation "MASPS" stands for...

Mobile Aerodrome Systems Performance Standards.

Minimum Aviation System Performance Standards.

Multi Aircrew Standardisation and Proficiency Specification.

Minimum Airspace Separation Procedures Specification.

An aircraft is flying behind a large aircraft to take pictures. It is slightly below and outboard of the wing of the preceding aircraft. What will be most likely to happen due to wake turbulence?

It will roll away from the preceding aircraft.

Continuous pitch-down and yaw.

Continuous pitch-up and yaw.

It will roll towards the preceding aircraft.

According to OPS regulations, the minimum required navigational equipment is as follows for operations under IFR or VFR along routes not navigable by reference to visual landmarks...

GPS for low-level flights; one area navigation equipment If the flight is to be flown, requiring area navigation; and one VOR receiver.

Two VOR receivers if the route is to be flown using VOR navaids only; two NDB receivers if the route is to be flown using NDB navaids only; and one area navigation equipment if the flight is to be flown requiring area navigation.

One VOR receiver; and one area navigation equipment If the flight is to be flown requiring area navigation.

Two VOR receivers if the route is to be flown using VOR navaids only; two NDB receivers if the route is to be flown using NDB navaids only; and one GPS for low-level flights.

A single-engine aircraft with an MOPSC of less than 19 flies over the Sahara desert with 5 POB. Due to difficulties in search and rescue activities, which rescue and survival equipment must be on board?

Crowbar

At least two ELT

Crash axe

At least one ELT(s)

Regarding wake turbulence, the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time for a MEDIUM aircraft behind a LIGHT aeroplane on approach to the same runway is:

1 minute

N/A

2 minutes

3 minutes

What are the experience and training requirements for a senior cabin crew member in the UK, according to regulations?

12 months of experience plus a proficiency check.

2 years of experience plus senior cabin crew training and checks.

2 years of experience plus a proficiency check.

1 year of experience plus senior cabin crew training and checks.

Consider EU Regulation on Air Operations applicable to Commercial Air Transport. For single-pilot operations under IFR and at night, the pilot must have a minimum flight time experience of (1) _____ under IFR and (2) _____ at night on the relevant type or class of aeroplane.

(1) 10 hours; (2) 5 hours.

(1) 50 hours; (2) 15 hours.

(1) 50 hours; (2) 10 hours.

(1) 25 hours; (2) 10 hours.

Ops Wiederholung

Cartes-fiches

Ops Wiederholung

Créer ou copier des fichiers d'apprentissage

Cartes-fiches

Veuillez vous connecter

Google

Apple ID

Microsoft

Switch edu-ID

Edulog

Google

Apple ID

Microsoft

Switch edu-ID

Edulog