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Select the correct presentation of friction measurement or calculated coefficient in a SNOWTAM.

H) 46/39/44 SFH

H) 0.46/0.39/0.44

H) 4/4/5 SFH

H) GOOD/GOOD/GOOD

According to ICAO, from sunset to sunrise or during any other period which may be prescribed by the appropriate authority, what shall all aircraft in flight display?

Steady navigation lights and anti-collision lights.

Steady red, green, and white navigation lights.

Steady navigation lights and two landing lights.

Steady navigation lights and one landing light.

Which of the following needs to be taken into account when the operator establishes operating minima?

1) The expected weather on arrival. 2) The experience of the commander.

1) Maximum length of flight duty period available per crew member. 2) Handling characteristics of the aircraft.

1) The composition of the flight crew. 2) The instrument approach procedures.

1) Weather forecasts for the past 5 years. 2) Obstacle clearance.

What’s a requirement to operate in NAT HLA airspace?

Both the plane and flight crew must be ETOPS compliant.

The crew must have had training.

The plane must be ETOPS compliant.

The crew must be ETOPS trained.

In accordance with ICAO Doc 4444, when a MEDIUM aircraft precedes a LIGHT aircraft using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, the wake turbulence radar separation minima on the approach or departure phases of flight shall be...

4 NM

2 NM

5 NM

3 NM

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, what is correct about noise abatement procedures specified by the operator? They should be:

Different for the same airplane type, according to airports.

Different according to airports and airplane types.

The same for all airports for the same airplane type.

The same for all airplane types for a specific airport.

Aeroplanes shall be equipped with a Child Restraint Device (CRD) for each person on board younger than..

6 months.

15 months.

12 months.

24 months.

An aircraft wants to fly from Europe to USA via Nat HLA track D, entry point PIKIL, and the track is a PBCS track with reduced lateral separation. Which of the following statement is correct?

The aircraft must meet increased RVSM separation, in addition to increased navigation accuracy.

The aircraft must have the required PBN for the route being flown, and have 3 working LRNS for redundancy.

The commander must consider that the aircraft will be more affected by wake turbulence of the preceding aircraft, since they fly closer to each other.

The aircraft must meet additional requirements on CPDLC and ADS-C, particularly regarding the time of response to any requests.

The cabin crew smell smoke in the passenger cabin shortly after departure. The aircraft commander is notified and lands 5 minutes later. After landing the source of the smoke can not be positively identified. What was this type of landing?

Emergency Landing

Precautionary Landing

Urgency Landing

Distress Landing

A helicopter is being readied for an emergency medical service flight to rescue two injured climbers stranded on a mountain. Alongside two pilots, a medical professional is on board to attend to the climbers. The medical professional is carrying equipment including instruments with lithium batteries, oxygen bottles, and medications containing radioactive components. This medical equipment could...

Be transported WITHOUT restrictions since medical equipment is permanently exempt from the dangerous goods regulation.

Be transported and exempt from the dangerous goods regulation due to the nature of this specific operation.

Only be transported provided the quantities of the dangerous goods are in accordance with the Technical Instructions.

NOT be transported unless specific permission is granted by the operator on a case-by-case basis.

What are the main parts of the NADP 1 procedure?

Reduce thrust at 800 ft and at 3000 ft accelerate and retract flaps

Reduce thrust at 400 ft and accelerate at 3000 ft.

Reduce thrust at 800 ft and accelerate.

Do not Reduce thrust at 800 ft and accelerate.

During a flight in the NAT HLA, you have an INS malfunction, while one GNSS remains operative. Which of the following is the correct course of action?

Continue the flight and monitor the INS malfunction.

Turn off track by 45 degrees and descend by 500 ft.

Divert onto a Tango route.

Call ATC immediately and request a descent below HLA.

A passenger wishes to transport several lithium power banks, which are used to run or charge other devices. Consider the requirements for transport of lithium batteries by air, which of the following is correct? These power banks:

Are permitted to be brought on board, on condition that they remain in the cabin and are connected at all times to the passenger's Portable Electronic Devices in order to prevent a short circuit.

Must be packed in accordance with the packing instructions for the transport of batteries and can only be transported in the passenger's baggage in the hold.

Are only permitted to be transported in passenger or cargo aircraft If they are connected at all times to Portable Electronic Devices, in order to reduce the risk of fire.

Are considered as batteries and only a small number of spare batteries can be carried in hand luggage. Otherwise they must be separately shipped in a cargo aircraft.

From the options available in the following list, where could you expect to find information about performance in icing conditions?

ICAO Doc 9284.

The Flight Manual.

The ICAO Technical Instructions for icing equipment.

Part C of the Operations Manual.

An aircraft is flying from London, Heathrow, UK to New York, JFK, USA and is within the NAT High Level Airspace at FL360. A hydraulic warning light has come on, which may necessitate a change of level. The in-flight contingency procedure requires an offset from the assigned route. If prior clearance cannot be obtained, what would be the initial action?

A turn to the right of track of at least 45° towards the nearest alternate, which is Keflavik, Iceland.

A turn to the left or right of track by at least 45° and immediately initiate a descent to a lower level.

A turn to the right of track of at least 30° towards the nearest alternate, which is Keflavik, Iceland.

Turn to the right of track in order to avoid any nearby traffic, which would follow the Strategic Offset Procedure (SLOP).

A minimum time track is a...

great circle track

track determined according to wind conditions

spherical capable flight segment

rhumb line

NAT operating procedures specify the need for the training of flight crew prior to operating within the NAT HLA. What is one of the intended objectives of this training? To...

Improve the ability of the flight crew to perform dead reckoning navigation in the event of a loss of on-board navigation systems, in order to continue flight within the NAT HLA.

Highlight the risks of complacency and a lack of adherence of SOPs due to over-reliance on the provision and reliability of modern aeroplane systems.

Familiarise the flight crew with the limitations of the long-range VHF communications systems used within the NAT HLA, and the deviations from normal VHF phraseology.

Provide the flight crew with sufficient knowledge of SOPs in order to help them deal with any kind of abnormal situation while operating within the NAT HLA.

An aeroplane command course requires a commander to carry out under supervision...

20 hours and at least 10 sectors.

20 hours and at least 5 sectors.

10 hours and at least 5 sectors.

At least 10 sectors.

Refer to figure. An aircraft is re-positioning from Europe to Canada, and it is planned to enter the NAT HLA at DOGAL and follow westbound track G which begins there. 20 minutes before reaching DOGAL, one of the aircraft's two FMSs fails, and cannot be reset. Which of the following must the pilots do?

Advise ATC of the failure and continue the flight as planned but with increased monitoring due to lack of redundancy.

Request a flight level that is either above or below the NAT HLA, but track G may still be followed.

Remain outside NAT HLA unless ATC approves a reroute via GOMUP-KFV-OZN and onwards.

Request a random route outside of the OTS since flight along the OTS requires 2 serviceable LRNSs, but a random route only requires 1.

Which of the following documents or publications should a Pilot-in-Command consult, in order to receive information regarding bird migrations for a specific area or route?

Notes on relevant Instrument Approach Procedures Charts.

Aeronautical Information Publications (AIP) section ENR 5.6.

ICAO Doc 9332 Manual on the ICAO Bird Strike Information System (IBIS).

IATA Almanac of Bird Strike Reports and Migration Routes.

Under the European regulations on civil aviation, concerning oversight and enforcement, who should conduct investigations, including ramp inspections, to prevent the continuation of an infringement?

ICAO

Member States

EASA

The Operator

Aeroplanes in which not all passenger seats are visible from the _____ shall be equipped with a means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew when seat belts shall be fastened and when smoking is not allowed.

Forward galley.

Galley and flight deck.

Cabin crew station.

Flight crew seats.

According to which principle does the operator establish the airport operating minima?

Each operator under the oversight of a competent authority has to use the same method.

The operator uses the KSS formula to calculate the minima.

The operator can choose between one of four methods to establish the minima.

The operator chooses which method to use.

What must the operator arrange for crew on Airport standby duty?

Food and beverage.

Entertainment services.

Accommodation.

Transport to and from the airport.

The "cocktail party effect" is the...

ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally.

tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world.

tendency not to perceive relevant information.

ability to drink too much at social gathering.

How can a pilot perceive the depth of a image at a distance of 200 m or more?

Overlap of contours, obscuration, and atmospheric perspective.

Objects at close range provide a different picture on each retina than distant objects.

The changing of the shape of the lens of the eye, to achieve the final focusing onto the retina.

The slightly different view each eye has of an object.

What is meant by "passive monitoring" in terms of automation complacency?

A pilot watching what is going on rather than analyzing and constantly checking.

A pilot’s belief in the fallibility of systems and constantly checking and analyzing the situation.

A pilot knowing where the aircraft has been, where it is now, and where it is going to.

A pilot’s concentration on one particular area of the system instead of monitoring the whole system.

Cognitive illusions can occur due to incorrect (1) _____ models because of the misinterpretation of (2) _____.

(1) mental; (2) external references

(1) conceptual; (2) external references

(1) mental; (2) sensory inputs

(1) conceptual; (2) sensory inputs

Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?

Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.

A very early symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria.

The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.

Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.

When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to...

take any Mach number.

take the Mach number specified in his initial flight plan.

take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.

maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.

Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when operating:

at or above FL60 or 2000 ft above ground whichever is the higher.

more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within any oceanic FIR.

above 3000 ft above ground.

more than 50 NM seaward from the shoreline within any oceanic FIR.

Regarding the packaging of dangerous goods, which of the following must be displayed when transported by air? 1. UN number 2. Shipper’s signature 3. Consignee’s name and address 4. Hazard labels and pictograms

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

What is required when making a Request for Clearance (RCL) in the NAT high level airspace?

Departure and arrival aerodromes

ETOPS capability of the aircraft

All waypoints within the NAT region

Maximum altitude on entry

According to regulations, in what year did the requirement for Cockpit Voice Recorders (CVR) come into effect, and for aircraft with how many seats is it mandated?

1990, 9 seats.

1998, 19 seats.

1990, 19 seats.

1998, 9 seats.

Which of the following can be considered a contaminant on a runway?

Compacted snow

Dust

Standing water

Dry snow

Complete the following sentence. A multi-engined turbine-powered aeroplane shall be equipped with a digital flight data recorder (FDR), if weighing 5700 kg or less, first issued with an individual CofA on or after 1 April _____ and having a MOPSC (seating) of _____.

1998, more than 9

2016, less than 9

1998, 9 or less

1990, more than 9

Choose the correct statement in regard to HLA routes T16 and T213.

They are not part of the OTS but require 2 LRNs.

They are random routes and require 1 LRNs.

They are not part of the OTS but require LRNs.

They are random routes and require 2 LRNs.

The complete information regarding the types of goods which the passengers are forbidden from transporting aboard an aircraft is listed in the...

ICAO document “Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air”.

ICAO Annex 18.

OPS documentation.

Aircraft's flight manual.

Which statement is true about required equipment?

Child-restraint devices are subject to an equipment approval.

Accurate time pieces can be used without an equipment approval.

All flight equipment is subject to an equipment approval.

All required flight equipment is not subjected to an equipment approval.

A holder of an Air Operator Certificate (AOC) issued by an EASA Member State is required to establish procedures to minimise the effect of aircraft noise for each aeroplane type it operates. These procedures must cover...

arrival/approach and landing only.

take-off and departure only.

departure and arrival/approach, including any contingencies.

departure and arrival/approach.

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