What is the primary risk if an aircraft enters the NAT HLA with an unsynchronised Master Clock?

Erosion of longitudinal separation between aircraft

Automatic rejection of ADS-C position reports

On a flight from Cape Town (South Africa) to Frankfurt (Germany), the significant weather chart shows crossing the ITCZ with CB forecast up to FL450. The crew can expect to encounter...

Icing on the AoA vanes giving wrong angle of attack indications.

Light turbulence, with the necessity to put the seatbelt sign on.

Clear air turbulence up to FL450.

Icing of all pitot probes and all static ports which will necessitate the use backup instruments.

Icing on the AoA vanes giving wrong angle of attack indications.

While cruising in NAT HLA at FL350, an aircraft encounters turbulence and is forced to reduce airspeed. The aircraft has limited performance margins and can not maintain the assigned flight level. The crew can not get a reclearance from ATC. What action should the crew take?

Turn 30° left or right and minimise descent until 5 NM off track.

Turn 30° and slowly descend 300 ft.

Reduce to turbulence penetration speed and remain at the assigned level.

Turn 30° left or right and minimise descent until 5 NM off track.

Maintain the current track and descend while remaining on the cleared route.

Refer to figure. The attached figure shows an extract from the European Regulation on Air Operations and applicable AMC and GM. An Operator assigns a pilot to fly as single pilot of a light twin-engined aeroplane on a local flight in the area of the Alps with paying passengers. All flights are conducted during daytime and according to VFR. Which of the following is correct?

There are NO requirements for recency but the area within which the operation is conducted may have specific national requirements.

The pilot must have conducted a familiarisation flight covering the relevant area within the previous 12 months to be considered qualified.

There is NO requirement for flight recency but the pilot must complete a familiarisation flight prior to operating within the area.

The pilot must have operated in the relevant area within the last 12 months unless a familiarisation flight is conducted prior to operating the flight.

There are NO requirements for recency but the area within which the operation is conducted may have specific national requirements.

When operating a flight with freelance cabin crew, which statement is correct? The cabin crew member(s)...

Must have received Operator-specific training, even if they are qualified to operate on the same aircraft type by another Operator.

CANNOT operate as a sole cabin crew or be nominated as the cabin crew member who is accountable to the Pilot-in-Command.

May operate on an unlimited number of aircraft types provided the exit layouts are similar and they operate to the same SOPs.

CANNOT operate as the only cabin crew member on board if they also work for another Operator, even if it is on the same aircraft type.

Must have received Operator-specific training, even if they are qualified to operate on the same aircraft type by another Operator.

When operating in the NAT HLA, modern aircraft often have three LRNS. What is one advantage of this?

It is easier for the pilots to distinguish a faulty LRNS.

There is no advantage, as three LRNS are required for unrestricted access in the NAT HLA.

It is easier for the pilots to distinguish a faulty LRNS.

In case two LRNS fail, the aircraft can still operate on the OTS without restriction.

Three LRNS meets the requirements to operate on PBCS routes.

card2brain.ch

After the engine has started, a carburettor fire develops. What is the correct action?

Immediate engine shut-down according to the procedures.

Open the throttle fully and the mixture.

Let engine run and fight fire with handheld CO₂ or Halon extinguisher.

Let the engine run. If the fire continues, then do the engine fire on ground check-list/drill.

Immediate engine shut-down according to the procedures.

Open the throttle fully and the mixture.

Let engine run and fight fire with handheld CO₂ or Halon extinguisher.

Let the engine run. If the fire continues, then do the engine fire on ground check-list/drill.

The relevant aspects and specialised tasks that pilots need to demonstrate during their Operator Proficiency Checks (OPC) are described in the...

Operations Manual

SMS Manual

Training Manual

Flight Manual

Operations Manual

SMS Manual

Training Manual

Flight Manual

According to OPS regulations, what is the maximum distance from an Adequate Aerodrome for Performance Class B or C aeroplanes without ETOPS approvals, when operated for Commercial Air Transport?

60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed or 200 NM, whichever is less.

90 minutes at maximum continuous power.

120 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed or 300 NM, whichever is less.

100 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed or 400 NM, whichever is less.

60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed or 200 NM, whichever is less.

90 minutes at maximum continuous power.

120 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed or 300 NM, whichever is less.

100 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed or 400 NM, whichever is less.

When flying to an isolated aerodrome for commercial air transport, what is the recommended distance from the destination to the destination alternate aerodrome?

6 hours flight time.

The distance varies based on the weather, approaches available and aircraft type.

2 hours flight time.

There is no need to have a destination alternate aerodrome.

6 hours flight time.

The distance varies based on the weather, approaches available and aircraft type.

2 hours flight time.

There is no need to have a destination alternate aerodrome.

A multi-engine aircraft with a MOPSC of 9 is scheduled to fly over a desert area. What type of equipment does the aircraft need for this flight?

At least 1 ELT

A distress beacon

2 ELTs

An additional transmitter

At least 1 ELT

A distress beacon

2 ELTs

An additional transmitter

According to ICAO Annex 6, Part I, the definition of "flight time for aeroplanes" is...

The time from when the pilot commences the take-off roll by applying take-off thrust until reaching taxi speed following landing.

The time from the moment the engines are started until the moment they are shut down at the end of the flight.

The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking-off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.

The time from when the aeroplane leaves the ground until the moment it touches down at the destination.

The time from when the pilot commences the take-off roll by applying take-off thrust until reaching taxi speed following landing.

The time from the moment the engines are started until the moment they are shut down at the end of the flight.

The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking-off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.

The time from when the aeroplane leaves the ground until the moment it touches down at the destination.

What is the maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) without extensions?

13 hours.

10 hours.

15 hours.

11 hours.

13 hours.

10 hours.

15 hours.

11 hours.

While in foreign airspace, an aircraft is carrying out a search and rescue operation. Some seamen are rescued but they can not speak any English, so the crewman are not able to brief the seamen properly on safety equipment when they are brought on board. As this is required in Part III of ICAO Annex 6, which of the following is correct?

Part III can be ignored to the extent necessary for the preservation of life.

Part III requires the carriage of pictorial briefing cards for passengers, which should be located before bringing the seamen on board.

The crew must comply with Part III as fully as is practicable in the circumstances.

Part III does NOT apply to search and rescue operations in any way.

Part III can be ignored to the extent necessary for the preservation of life.

Part III requires the carriage of pictorial briefing cards for passengers, which should be located before bringing the seamen on board.

The crew must comply with Part III as fully as is practicable in the circumstances.

Part III does NOT apply to search and rescue operations in any way.

In HLA airspace, an aeroplane is flying using the Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure (SLOP). Pilots can choose from. 1. Up to 2 miles to the right 2. Centreline 3. Up to 1 mile to the left 4. 2 miles to the left

1 and 2

3 and 4

1 and 4

2 and 3

1 and 2

3 and 4

1 and 4

2 and 3

In accordance with the European Regulations on Air Operations, an operator of aircraft with a Maximum Certificated Take-Off Mass of more than 27 000 kg should include in their Management System which of the following?

Occurrence reporting, rotable parts management, and flight data monitoring.

Hazard identification, occurrence reporting, and flight data monitoring.

Incident and accident investigation, environmental evaluations, and maintenance procedures.

Maintenance procedures, risk assessment, and accident investigation.

Occurrence reporting, rotable parts management, and flight data monitoring.

Hazard identification, occurrence reporting, and flight data monitoring.

Incident and accident investigation, environmental evaluations, and maintenance procedures.

Maintenance procedures, risk assessment, and accident investigation.

When inadvertently flying into a microburst, the flight crew initially experiences a headwind of 30 kt. What horizontal wind component would be most likely under the centre of the microburst?

15 kt

0 kt

60 kt

30 kt

15 kt

0 kt

60 kt

30 kt

The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of...

the state where the aircraft was manufactured.

no approval is required.

the state of registry.

the state of the operator.

the state where the aircraft was manufactured.

no approval is required.

the state of registry.

the state of the operator.

What should the cabin crew do first, following a fire in the passenger cabin?

Provide supplementary oxygen to those who need it.

Put on life jackets and prepare to ditch.

Ask the flight crew to ensure that the passenger compartment is ventilated.

Move passengers away from the source of the fire.

Provide supplementary oxygen to those who need it.

Put on life jackets and prepare to ditch.

Ask the flight crew to ensure that the passenger compartment is ventilated.

Move passengers away from the source of the fire.

Regarding wake turbulence, what are the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and the minimum non-radar separation time for a MEDIUM aircraft behind a HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway?

9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes

11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes

7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes

11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes

7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

An aeroplane pilot is taking a course of training to upgrade from Co-Pilot to Commander. This command course contains many training elements, one of which is to complete.

Training in an FSTD, which includes LOFT training.

At least 10 hours of training in an FSTD, which includes LOFT training.

Line training under the supervision for at least 8 flight sectors.

At least 5 hours of training in an FSTD, followed by line training in any aircraft.

Training in an FSTD, which includes LOFT training.

At least 10 hours of training in an FSTD, which includes LOFT training.

Line training under the supervision for at least 8 flight sectors.

At least 5 hours of training in an FSTD, followed by line training in any aircraft.

According to OPS regulations, for acclimatised crews, the maximum daily Flight Duty Period (FDP) can be extended by the operator by up to...

3 hours, but not more than once in any 10 consecutive days.

2 hours, but not more than once in any 10 consecutive days.

1 hour, but not more than twice in any 7 consecutive days.

4 hours, but not more than twice in any 7 consecutive days.

3 hours, but not more than once in any 10 consecutive days.

2 hours, but not more than once in any 10 consecutive days.

1 hour, but not more than twice in any 7 consecutive days.

4 hours, but not more than twice in any 7 consecutive days.

During the cockpit preparation of the first flight of the day, you’re reading the MEL items effective for the aircraft you’re about to fly and it states that one of the two autopilots is inoperative. The respective MEL item states that RNP AR approaches requiring less than 0.3 NM of accuracy are prohibited with 1 AP inoperative, and a further degradation with a failure of the second autopilot would prohibit flights in RVSM. Which of the following statements is correct?

The aircraft needs to be checked by a certified engineer before the captain accepts it.

The aircraft is AOG.

RNP AR approach is not allowed with the current dispatch conditions.

RNP AR approach is still allowed.

The aircraft needs to be checked by a certified engineer before the captain accepts it.

The aircraft is AOG.

RNP AR approach is not allowed with the current dispatch conditions.

RNP AR approach is still allowed.

During the pre-flight preparation, a pilot who is operating a Commercial Air Transport flight with passengers, notices a fault with the only GPS receiver on board. The pilot has access to both the MEL and the MMEL, and finds the notes as shown below. How should the effect of the fault be addressed? MMEL: May be inoperative provided it is NOT required for navigation MEL: May be inoperative for VFR-by-day only; or; positioning flights if NOT required for navigation

The pilot may conduct the flight with NO restrictions if the flight remains in VMC and alternative means for navigation are used.

Restrictions in the MEL are less strict than the MMEL and therefore the MEL must be used in this case.

The restriction in the MMEL applies because this is the master document produced by the aeroplane manufacturer.

This flight may be conducted as planned if it is daylight and the flight is planned according to VFR only.

The pilot may conduct the flight with NO restrictions if the flight remains in VMC and alternative means for navigation are used.

Restrictions in the MEL are less strict than the MMEL and therefore the MEL must be used in this case.

The restriction in the MMEL applies because this is the master document produced by the aeroplane manufacturer.

This flight may be conducted as planned if it is daylight and the flight is planned according to VFR only.

What does COMMISSION REGULATION (EU) No 965/2012 of 5 October 2012 apply to?

Air operations with aeroplanes, helicopters, balloons and sailplanes, including ramp inspections of aircraft of operators under the safety oversight of another State when landed at aerodromes located in the territory subject to the provisions of the Treaty, including military, police and customs air operations.

Air operations with all aircraft of operators located in the territory subject to the provisions of the Treaty.

Commercial air transport operations with aeroplanes and helicopters, including ramp inspections of aircraft of operators under the safety oversight of another State when landed at aerodromes located in the territory subject to the provisions of the Treaty.

Air operations with aeroplanes, helicopters, balloons and sailplanes, including ramp inspections of aircraft of operators under the safety oversight of another State when landed at aerodromes located in the territory subject to the provisions of the Treaty.

Air operations with aeroplanes, helicopters, balloons and sailplanes, including ramp inspections of aircraft of operators under the safety oversight of another State when landed at aerodromes located in the territory subject to the provisions of the Treaty, including military, police and customs air operations.

Air operations with all aircraft of operators located in the territory subject to the provisions of the Treaty.

Commercial air transport operations with aeroplanes and helicopters, including ramp inspections of aircraft of operators under the safety oversight of another State when landed at aerodromes located in the territory subject to the provisions of the Treaty.

Air operations with aeroplanes, helicopters, balloons and sailplanes, including ramp inspections of aircraft of operators under the safety oversight of another State when landed at aerodromes located in the territory subject to the provisions of the Treaty.

Consider the European Regulation on Air Operations as applicable to Commercial Air Transport operations. Flight time specification schemes shall state the conditions for extensions to the maximum basic daily FDP due to in-flight rest. These extensions shall take into account the...

type of aircraft operated, regardless of the type of in-flight rest facilities.

discretion of the competent authority.

augmentation of the basic flight crew.

maximum in-flight rest allocated to each crew member.

type of aircraft operated, regardless of the type of in-flight rest facilities.

discretion of the competent authority.

augmentation of the basic flight crew.

maximum in-flight rest allocated to each crew member.

Carbon monoxide poisoning can cause headaches. These are usually categorised as which of the following types?

Throbbing

Localised

Punctuated (sharp)

Intermittent

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

Throbbing

Localised

Punctuated (sharp)

Intermittent

Which equipment is necessary to operate in RVSM airspace?

1, 3 and 4.

3, 4 and 5.

2, 3 and 4.

1, 3 and 5.

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

1, 3 and 4.

3, 4 and 5.

2, 3 and 4.

1, 3 and 5.

According to ICAO Annex 6, a flight data analysis programme shall contain adequate safeguards to protect the (1) _____ in accordance with (2) _____.

(1) completeness of the data; (2) ICAO Annex 17

(1) source(s) of data; (2) ICAO Annex 19

(1) completeness of the data; (2) ICAO Annex 19

(1) source(s) of data; (2) ICAO Annex 17

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

(1) completeness of the data; (2) ICAO Annex 17

(1) source(s) of data; (2) ICAO Annex 19

(1) completeness of the data; (2) ICAO Annex 19

(1) source(s) of data; (2) ICAO Annex 17

A category II operation (CAT II) is an instrument precision approach and landing using ILS or MLS with:

a DH below 50 ft and a RVR of less than 200 m but not less than 75 m.

a DH below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft and a RVR of not less than 300 m.

a DH below 100 ft but not lower than 50 ft and a RVR of not less than 250 m.

a DH below 100 ft but not lower than 50 ft and a RVR of not less than 200 m.

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

a DH below 50 ft and a RVR of less than 200 m but not less than 75 m.

a DH below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft and a RVR of not less than 300 m.

a DH below 100 ft but not lower than 50 ft and a RVR of not less than 250 m.

a DH below 100 ft but not lower than 50 ft and a RVR of not less than 200 m.

An operator shall establish and maintain a flight safety programme. Who may the operator nominate as responsible for that programme? (Assume the people mentioned are not performing any other functions or roles.) 1- accountable manager 2- line captain 3- finance director 4- chief executive officer

1, 2 and 4

2 and 3

1 and 2

3 and 4

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

1, 2 and 4

2 and 3

1 and 2

3 and 4

You are flying in RVSM airspace. What altitude deviation should be reported by the operator?

+/- 245 ft of deviation because of inaccuracy of the altimeter

+/- 245 ft of deviation from true altitude

+/- 200 ft of deviation because of inaccuracy of the altimeter

+/- 200 ft of deviation from true altitude

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

+/- 245 ft of deviation because of inaccuracy of the altimeter

+/- 245 ft of deviation from true altitude

+/- 200 ft of deviation because of inaccuracy of the altimeter

+/- 200 ft of deviation from true altitude

On a long haul flight, one of the pilots will not be able to complete the flight duty. There have been NO unforeseen events. Can the duty be extended?

At the commander's discretion.

Depending on the crew rest facilities available.

No, the duty cannot be extended.

Yes, at the operator's Flight Ops Manager's discretion.

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

At the commander's discretion.

Depending on the crew rest facilities available.

No, the duty cannot be extended.

Yes, at the operator's Flight Ops Manager's discretion.

Who is responsible for applying the rule that passengers must not use portable electronic devices (PED) on board an aircraft during the flight?

Commander

Pilot Flying

Operator

ICAO

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

Commander

Pilot Flying

Operator

ICAO

For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in...

90 seconds.

132 seconds.

60 seconds.

120 seconds.

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

90 seconds.

132 seconds.

60 seconds.

120 seconds.

According to the Certification Specifications for Large Aeroplanes (CS-25), if a fuel-jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning the required quantity of fuel within...

60 minutes.

30 minutes.

15 minutes.

45 minutes.

Keyboard commands:

= turn,

= for-/backward,

= scroll

60 minutes.

30 minutes.

15 minutes.

45 minutes.

During a transatlantic flight, a passenger falls ill and items from the emergency medical kit are required. Where would the emergency medical kit be located?

In any overhead locker.

A location to prohibit incorrect use.

In the overhead lockers for the first row.

A suitable location for the use of both crew and passengers.

In any overhead locker.

A location to prohibit incorrect use.

In the overhead lockers for the first row.

A suitable location for the use of both crew and passengers.

Which of the following risks can be identified in a SNOWTAM? 1. Snow 2. Lightning 3. Water 4. Oil spills 5. Windshear

1 and 3

1 only

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

1, 3, 5

1 and 3

1 only

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

1, 3, 5

An aircraft starts the take-off run but at 60 knots IAS, the pilot rejects the take-off. What shall the flight crew do next in respect to the brakes?

If the tires/wheels didn’t explode/ignite you can take-off immediately.

Calculate the time for brake cooling, wait as necessary and then take-off.

ATC needs to be asked for brake cooling before second take-off.

If the aircraft has carbon brakes, you can take-off immediately.

If the tires/wheels didn’t explode/ignite you can take-off immediately.

Calculate the time for brake cooling, wait as necessary and then take-off.

ATC needs to be asked for brake cooling before second take-off.

If the aircraft has carbon brakes, you can take-off immediately.

You are planning to cross the North Atlantic (NAT) airspace during a period when no Organized Track System (OTS) is in effect, and instead on a random route. Which flight level should be flight planned?

Use a flight level corresponding to the last published OTS.

Any flight level, as long as it works with traffic flows.

Use a flight level corresponding to the next published OTS.

Use a flight level based on PBCS requirements.

Use a flight level corresponding to the last published OTS.

Any flight level, as long as it works with traffic flows.

Use a flight level corresponding to the next published OTS.

Use a flight level based on PBCS requirements.

A low visibility take-off is a take-off with...

Visibility less than 550 m.

RVR less than 400 m but not less than 75 m.

RVR less than 550 m.

Visibility less than 400 m but not less than 75 m.

Visibility less than 550 m.

RVR less than 400 m but not less than 75 m.

RVR less than 550 m.

Visibility less than 400 m but not less than 75 m.

In accordance with OPS regulations, refuelling with non-wide cut fuel performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft is acceptable provided, among other conditions...

all flight crew remain at their station.

the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.

the fire brigade truck is close to the aircraft, ready for fire fighting.

all the aircraft doors are completely open.

all flight crew remain at their station.

the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.

the fire brigade truck is close to the aircraft, ready for fire fighting.

all the aircraft doors are completely open.

An aircraft experiences an in-flight contingency whilst flying in the NAT HLA and unable to contact for an amended clearance. What procedure shall the aircraft fly?

Turn left or right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track by 5 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then establish a 500 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track by 10 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then establish a 300 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn left or right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track by 5 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then establish a 300 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track or SLOP by 5 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then climb establish a 300 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn left or right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track by 5 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then establish a 500 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track by 10 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then establish a 300 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn left or right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track by 5 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then establish a 300 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Turn right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to ATCMaintain FL if able or minimise climb / descent rate (SLOP traffic)Maintain visual and ACAS watch (ACAS in RA mode)Turn on exterior lightsAlert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45Parallel CL of cleared track or SLOP by 5 NMConsider clearing HLA airspace and descending below FL290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal FLsIf not descending then climb establish a 300 ft vertical off set until ATC clearance received

Aeroplanes that were first registered in a Member State after 1st April 1995 and with more than what Maximum Certified Take-off Mass should be equipped with a crew member interphone system?

10000 kg

5700 kg

15000 kg

27000 kg

10000 kg

5700 kg

15000 kg

27000 kg

According to OPS regulations, if no alternate aerodrome is required, the flight must be conducted so that the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome is not less than...

fuel to fly 15 minutes at 1500 ft above the destination aerodrome.

fuel equal to 5% of trip fuel.

fuel to fly 30 minutes at holding speed and FL100.

final reserve fuel.

fuel to fly 15 minutes at 1500 ft above the destination aerodrome.

fuel equal to 5% of trip fuel.

fuel to fly 30 minutes at holding speed and FL100.

final reserve fuel.