B1_1
Erstes Buch Kartei 1
Erstes Buch Kartei 1
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Flashcards | 99 |
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Language | English |
Category | Biology |
Level | University |
Created / Updated | 13.07.2021 / 08.10.2021 |
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2. Whichfactor is NOT considered by Vasiceks model
3. Ho and Lees model adds a factor:
4. The Black-Derman-Toy (BDT) model calibrates
5. An analyst needs to factor probabilities for a financial derivative under a risk-neutral mandate.The analyst should use
6. An analyst is trying to better understand the shape of the yield curve, which is typically upward sloping during good economic environments. Arbitrage-free models(e.g., Vasiceks model) can be used to help explain this observation. What is the connection between Vasiceks model and the shape of a normal yield curve? Explain
Vasiceks equilibrium model is based on mean reversion. As rates revert to their long-term mean, they often resolve to an upward-sloping yield curve. In other words,if current rates are below their long-term mean, then the slope of the yield curve should be upward sloping using Vasiceks framework.
7. John needs to estimate rates for a fixed-income derivative. He is considering using Vasiceks model, Ho and Lees model,or the Black-Derman-Toy (BDT)model. How should John evaluate the best model to use for his needs? Explain
Vasiceks model is an equilibrium-based model that focuses on mean reversion, which may not be the best option to pursue. Ho and Lees model is an arbitrage-free model that directly links the current rates with the current yield curve. This is a good enhancement, but the BDT model is probably the best option because it links to the current yield curve and factors implied volatility. The BDTmodel is the most sophisticated of these three models and the best choice for valuing derivatives.
What is more important than the recovery rate usually?
Calculae it given Recovery Rate is 35%, loan is 175mio borrowed for 4 years and an appropriate discount rate of 6.5%?
However that an RR of 70% does not necessarily guarantee that the lender will recover 70% of its loan at the time of default. The recovery process can be lengthy and therefore, the more relevant measure is the present value of the recovered amount
amount to be recovered = 0.35 * 175 = 61.25
PV of planned recovery = (61.25)/(1+0.065)^4 = 47.611
recovery rate = 47.611/175 = 27.21%
How is LGD, EAD, RR and PD linked?
LGD = EAD * (1-RR)
Expected Loss = LGD * PD = EAD * (1-RR) * PD
Explain the three types of credit risk modelling approaches
Structural credit risk models
Reduced form models
Empirical models
Structural: Draw explicit relationship between capital structure and default. Equity is modelled as call option with strike value equal to the face value of the bond. The bondholders have a risk free bond and a short position ina put option on the entitys assets
Reduced: View default as a random external factor
Emirical: Produce credit score that is used to rank entities by creditworthiness
Explain the Merton model including formulas
Assets are equal to Debt lus Equity.
E = max(A-K,0)
D = K - max(K-A,0)
E = A * N(d) - K * e^(-r*t) * N(d-sigma_Assets * sqrt(t))
--> The formula for d will be provided on the exam
Given that debtholders are exposed to the risk of loss from a shortfall between the value of assets and the facevalue of debt buying put option hedges this risk
P = K*e^(-rt)*N(-d+sigma_assets*sqrt(t)) - A*N(-d)
What are the shortcomings of the merton model?
What are the four important propoerties of the merton mdel?
Shortcomings are: many model paameters are not redily observable including return volatility and asset market values. The model does not explain the credit spreads on short term securities well
1. Sensitivity to maturity --> As maturity increases the PD rises.
2. Sensitivity to asset volatility -> As asset volatility i ncreases so does the PD.
3. Sensitivity to leverage --> Higher leverage increases the PD
4. Sensitivity to the risk free rate --> as risk free rate increases so does the return expectation reducing PD
Describe and provide an overview of the KMV Credit Risk model
KMV credit risk model is a structural credit risk model and is built on the Merton model but also uses estimates of the volatility and value of a firms assets and equity.
--> Instead of looking at credit risk form a lenders perspective is is used to analyze the viewpoint of the equity holder
Describe the formula of the KMV Model
sigma(equity) = Assets / Equity * Delta * sigma(asets)
Delta measures the sensitivity of firms equity to changes in asset values and is equivalent to N(d) in the Merton model.
Important difference to the Merton model is the treatment of default. KMV uses a weighted average of short and long term bonds and therefore default is calculated only when the asset values fall below the combined value of debt. Merton only uses a single zero coupon bond
Use the KMV to claculate distance to default and expected default frequency given:
Corporation is worth 100 estimated default trigger is 77 and asset volatility is 30% and assume that 750 have the same distance to default as the corporation and that 7 of them defaulted by the end of the year
DD = (110-77) / (77*0.3) = 1.43 this means that the corporation is 1.43 standard deviations away from default. If asset value drops by more than 1.43 standard deviations a firm will enter default territory
EDF = 7/750 = 0.93% One could therefore expect that 0.93% of firms with a DD equaling 1.5 would default by the end of the year
Describe reduced form models
What are the two predominant reduced form credit models?
Reduced form models consider default only as exogenous variables. They do not consider what causes default.
--> Model drivers include time to default and recovery in the event of default LGD.
--> Default intensity determines the expected time until default and the survival probability. If default intensity is 0.2 then the time until default is 1/0.2 = 5
The Jarrow Turnbull model assumes the recovery rate received at maturity regardless of the timing of default - Jarrow lando Turnbull model also takes credit ratings and migration into account
The Duffie Singleton model assumes that recovery can happen at any time
The Asset Manager Code (AMC) is specific to Level II. Does it apply to investment firms and or Individuals?
The Asset Manager Code (AMC) applies to investment firms, not individuals
What are the six components to the AMC?
Loyalty to clients
Investment Process and Actions
Trading
Risk Management, Complicance, and Support
Performance and Valuation
Disclosures
What are - related to the six components of AMC - the related six general principles of conduct?
Always act ethically aand professionally
Act in the best interest of the client
Act in an objective and independent manner
Perform actions using skill, competence, and diligence
Communicate accurately with clients on a regular basis
Comply with legal and regulatory requirements regarding capital markets
Demonstrate knowledge of Professional Conduct A: Loyalty to Clients.
A1 Place the clients interests ahead of the firms in all aspects of the relationship - selecting investments, transacting etc.
A2 Maintain client confidentiality. However, there may be exceptions regarding potentially illegal activities occurring in clien accounts, which may need to be reported
A3 Refuse business relationships and gifta that would compromise independence, objectivity, and loyalty to clients (even in appearance). Only items of nominal value may be accepted. The firm may maintain other (signigicant) business relationships with the same client, assuming potential conflicts are mitigated and disclosed.
Demonstrate knowledge of Professional Code B: Investment Process and Actions
B1: Use reasonable care and judgment when managing client assets
B2: Do not manupulate securities prices and volumes to try to mislead market participants, as it damages the integrity of markets to the detriment of all investors
B3: Deal fairly and objectively with all clients when providing information, givind advice and taking actions. Managers may offer higher levels of service to some clients for higher compensation if the service levels are disclosed and available to all clients willing to pay for them. Managers may engage in secondary investment opportunities (that are offered because of other business activities) if the opportunities are fairly allocated to all suitable clients
B4: Have a reasonable and adequate basis for recommendations. Third-Party resarch can be used if reasonable
B5a: For portfolios managed to a specific style or strategy, managers do not have to evaluate the suitability to given client. Managers must provide suitable disclosure so clients can determine if the portfolio is suitable for their needs.
B5b: Material changes to strategies and styles must be provided to clients as far in advance as possible.
B6a: When managing portfolios of a specific client, understand the clients objectives, constraints and any other pertinent information to be able to take suitable investment actions for that client
B6b: Client portfolios should contain only investments that are suitable for those clients.
Demonstrate knowledge of Professional Code C: Trading
C1: Do not acto or cause others to act on material nonpublic information that could affect the value of public securities. However, the use of mosaic theory - material public information and nonmaterial nonpublic information - is acceptable
C2: Managers cannot execute ahead of clients or to the detriment of clients interest
C3: Use client commissions - which belong to the client - only to pay for investment decision making products and services that directly benefit the client not for the management of the firm
C4: Seek best execution for all client trades
C5: Establish policies for fair and equitable trade allocation. All clients for whom the trade is suitable should be given the opportunity to participate.
Demonstrate knowledge of Professional Code D: Risk Management, Complicance, and Support
D1: Develop detailed policies and procedures to comply with the AMC and all legal and regulatory requirements
D2: Appoint a competent, knowledgeable, credible compliance officer with authority to implement the P&Ps
D3: Use an independent third party to verify that information provided to clients is accurate and complete.
D4: Maintain records to document investment actions.
D5: Employ sufficient and qualified staff to meet all AMC requirements. Outsourcing of some tasks is acceptable, but the firm remains ultimately responsible for all outsourced tasks.
D6: Establish a business conitnuity plan.
D7: Establish a firmwide risk management plan to measure and manage the risks taken
Demonstrate knowledge of Professional Code E: Performance and Valuatoin
E1: Present performance data that is fair, accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. Do not misrepresent performance of accounts or the firm
E2: Use fair market prices when available and commonly used valuation methods in other cases.
Demonstrate knowledge of Professional Code F: Disclosures
F1: Have ongoing, timely communication with clients using appropriate methods at the firms discretion
F2: Ensure truthful, accurate, complete, and understandable communication. Use plain language. Determine what to disclose and how
F3: Include any (all) meterial facts regarding the firm, personnel, investments, and the investment process
F4: Disclose the following (individiual items may state that "information is available upon request").
- Any conflict of interest
- Regulatory and disciplinary actions
- Investment process information - strategy, risk factors, lock-up period, derivatives and leverage
- Management fees
- All soft dollar and bundled fees and what is received in return
- Regular and timely client investment performance reporting
- Valuation methods used to make investment decisions
- The P&Ps used for shareholder voting
- Trade allocation policies
- Review and audit results
- Significant personnel and organizational changes
- Risk management process and changes to that process
Marnie Jenkins, CFA, is an asset managerfora financial servicesfirm that has adopted the AMCin managingclient accounts. Jenkins hasaclient whohasrecently been depositing into his account bearer (coupon) bondsissued by GasTech, a natural gas exploration company. Shortlyafter depositing the bonds,theclient begins requesting disbursement of funds from those bonds. Jenkins suspects the client maybe using thefirm in anillegal moneylaundering scheme. Whichof the following items regarding howthefirm should actis mostaccurate?
2. Terillium Traders (Terillium) is a smallstock brokeragefirm that specializes in buying andselling stocks on behalfof client accounts. Severalof Terilliums brokers haverecently beenplacing botha bid and anoffer on the samesecurity about two hours beforethe markets openfor trading. Thatallows their trades to be some of thefirst ones madeafter the markets open.Just before the markets open,the brokers then cancel oneof the ordersin anticipation that the marketwill movein favor of the other order. Which component,if any,of the AMChas mostlikely beenviolated?
3. World Investment Advisers (WIA)is a large salesforce of registered investment representatives, which hasaffiliations with manyfirms that produce investment-related products. Oneof the affiliated firms is a mutual fund companycalled Life Investors (Life), which has a special agreement with WIA in which WIA has identified Life as a preferred product provider in their internal marketing materials to their investment representatives. In return for the preferential treatment by WIA,Life has reimbursed WIAfor the cost of those marketing materials out of the trading commissionsgenerated from the sale of Life mutual funds byWIA sales representatives. Whichof the following statements regarding any violations of the AMCis most accurate?
4. Harriet Fields, an investment adviserspecializing in selling municipal bonds, advertises ontelevision explaining the safety and security of these bonds. The bonds sheis currently selling are limited obligation bonds backed only by the revenue generatedfrom the projects they fund, which include a housing project anda golf course.Fields tells her prospectiveclients that the bondsaresafe, secure, andoffer generousinterest payments. Whichof the following statements is mostaccurate regarding Fieldss actions?
5. Aspart of the AMC,the firm must adoptpolicies that:
6. AndreasViotti, CFA,is a portfolio managerat an investment managementfirm that has adopted the Asset Manager Code (AMC). Heis interested in the IPO of Telstar, Inc. (Telstar). Telstar is expected to have excellent growth prospects; however, due to recent political events, Viotti believes that the stock volatility could be quite high in the first year. He places an order for the Telstar IPO and begins to allocate the IPO shares amonghis clients. Hedivides his clients into two groupsan income-based group and acapital gainsCbased group. The income-based groupof clients is morerisk averse than the capital gainsCbased group, soViotti decides to allocate the IPOshares onlyto his capital gainsCbased groupof clients. Within the capital gainsCbased group of clients, he allocates the shares pro rata based on the size of assets in each account.
DiscussViottis trade allocation method in the context of the requirements of the AMC
Under the AMC,Viotti is required to establish policies for fair and equitable trade allocation. All clients for whomthe IPOis suitable should be given the opportunity to participate. Hence,Viottis action in allocating ahigh-risk IPOonly to thecapital gains groupof clients would beconsistent with the requirements of the AMC.Viotti alsohas a reasonablebasis(e.g., using sizeof assets under management) in allocating the IPOshares amongthecapital gains groupof clients; therefore, it is also consistent with the requirements of the AMC. (LO 1.C)
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